ARDMS EXAM
PEDIATRIC ARDMS EXAM 2 PRACTICE EXAM
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The nurse is having difficulty communicating with a hospitalized 6-year-old child. Which approach by the nurse is
most helpful in establishing communication?
Engage the child through drawing pictures.
Suggest that the parent read a book to the child.
Provide paper and pencil for the child to keep a diary.
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ARDMS EXAM
Ask the parent if the child is always uncommunicative.
- Correct Answer :Engage the child through drawing pictures.
Drawing pictures (A) is a valuable form of non-verbal communication. As the nurse and child look at the
drawings, a verbal story can be told that projects the child's thinking. (B) may distract the child, but does not
establish communication with the nurse. (C) is useful for an older child who is able to write. (D) is important, but
engaging the child is more effective in establishing communication patterns.
The nurse is caring for a 12-year-old with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH). This child
should be carefully assessed for which complication?
Poor skin turgor resulting from dehydration.
Changes in level of consciousness.
Premature aging as the disease progresses.
Severe edema from an excess of water and sodium. - Correct Answer :Changes in level of consciousness.
The child must be monitored for signs and symptoms of hyponatremia, which creates secondary central nervous
system alterations such as changes in level of consciousness, seizure, and coma (B). Fluid overload occurs with
SIADH, not (A) (which occurs with diabetes insipidus). (C) is caused by hypersecretion of growth hormone, not
SIADH. (D) is not found in children with SIADH because edema is caused by an excess of both water and sodium.
The nurse is assigning care for a 4-year-old child with otitis media and is concerned about the child's increasing
temperature over the past 24 hours. When planning care for this child, it is important for the nurse to consider
that
A. Only an RN should be assigned to monitor this child's temperature. Incorrect
B. A tympanic measurement of temperature will provide the most accurate reading.
C. The licensed practical nurse should be instructed to obtain rectal temperatures on this child.
D. The healthcare provider should be asked to prescribe the method for measurement of the child's
temperatures. - Correct Answer :B. A tympanic measurement of temperature will provide the most accurate
reading.
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ARDMS EXAM
(B) A tympanic membrane sensor is an excellent site because both the eardrum and hypothalamus
(temperature-regulating center) are perfused by the same circulation. The sensor is unaffected by cerumen and
the presence of suppurative or unsuppurative otitis media does not effect measurement. RULE OF THUMB: for
management--sterile procedures should be assigned to licensed personnel. Management skills will be tested on
the NCLEX! An RN is not required (A). Rectal temperature measurement (C) is less accurate because of the
possibility of stool in the rectum. (D) is unnecessary.
A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room because he swallowed an entire bottle of children's vitamin
pills. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Insert N/G tube for gastric lavage.
Determine the child's pulse and respirations.
Assess the child's level of consciousness.
Administer an IV D5/0.25 NS as prescribed. - Correct Answer :Determine the child's pulse and respirations.
The most important principle in dealing with a poisoning is to treat the child first, not the poison. Initiate
immediate life support measures with assessment of vital signs (B), in particular, respirations. Inserting an airway
or initiating mechanical ventilation may be necessary. Assessment and identification of the poison should occur
prior to (A). (C and D) should occur after assessing the airway.
To take the vital signs of a 4-month-old child, which order provides the most accurate results?
Respiratory rate, heart rate, then rectal temperature.
Heart rate, rectal temperature, then respiratory rate.
Rectal temperature, heart rate, then respiratory rate.
Rectal temperature, respiratory rate, then heart rate. - Correct Answer :Respiratory rate, heart rate, then rectal
temperature.
The respiratory rate should be taken first (A) in infants, since touching them or performing unpleasant
procedures usually makes them cry, elevating the heart rate and making respirations difficult to count (B). Rectal
temperature is the most invasive procedure, and is most likely to precipitate crying, so should be done last (C
and D).
The parents of a 3-week-old infant report that the child eats well but vomits after each feeding. What
information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
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ARDMS EXAM
Description of vomiting episodes in past 24 hours.
Number of wet diapers in last 24 hours.
Feeding and sleep schedule.
Amount of formula consumed during the past 24 hours. - Correct Answer :Description of vomiting episodes in
past 24 hours.
A description of the vomiting episodes (A) will assist the nurse in determining the reason for the symptoms,
which may be helpful in developing a plan of care for this infant. (B and C) provide related information but are
not as helpful as (A). (D) may be related to the vomiting, but the nurse should first obtain a better description of
the vomiting episodes.
A 5-month-old is admitted to the hospital with vomiting and diarrhea. The pediatrician prescribes dextrose 5%
and 0.25% normal saline with 2 mEq KCl/100 ml to be infused at 25 ml/hour. Prior to initiating the infusion, the
nurse should obtain which assessment finding?
Frequency of emesis in the last 8 hours.
Serum BUN and creatinine levels.
Current blood sugar level.
Appearance of the stool. - Correct Answer :Serum BUN and creatinine levels.
Regardless of a client's age, adequate renal function must be present before adding potassium to IV fluids (B).
(A) is important in determining the need for fluid replacement. (C) is not indicated. (D) is useful information, but
will not impact administration of the prescribed IV solution.
Which finding in a 19-year-old female client should trigger further assessment by the nurse?
Menstruation has not occurred.
Reports no tetanus immunization since childhood.
Denies having any wisdom teeth.
History of painful, inward growth on bottom of foot. - Correct Answer :Menstruation has not occurred.
Menstruation is an expected secondary sex characteristic that occurs with pubescence and typically occurs by
age 18, so (A) should prompt further investigation to determine the cause of this primary amenorrhea. Children
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