SEFMB Written Test 2026/2027 | Expert Field Medical Badge |
200+ Practice Questions, Correct Answers & Detailed
Rationales
section 1: Tactical Combat Casualty Care & Battlefield Medicine
1. What is the primary objective of Tactical Combat Casualty Care
(TCCC)?
A. Eliminate all battlefield injuries
B. Provide appropriate lifesaving care while accounting for the tactical
situation
C. Transport every casualty immediately
D. Replace definitive hospital treatment
Answer: B
Rationale: TCCC integrates trauma care with tactical considerations to
maximize casualty survival.
2. Which phase of TCCC occurs while the casualty and rescuer remain
under effective hostile fire?
A. Tactical Field Care
B. Tactical Evacuation Care
C. Care Under Fire
D. Definitive Care
Answer: C
Rationale: Care Under Fire emphasizes immediate actions that can be
safely performed while exposed to hostile fire.
3. During Care Under Fire, what is generally the highest priority?
A. Establishing an IV
,B. Controlling massive extremity hemorrhage when feasible
C. Performing a complete secondary survey
D. Measuring blood pressure
Answer: B
Rationale: Catastrophic hemorrhage can cause death rapidly and should
be addressed when tactically feasible.
4. Why is rapid movement to cover important during Care Under Fire?
A. It prevents hypothermia
B. It permits more extensive medical treatment
C. It reduces continued exposure to enemy fire
D. It guarantees airway protection
Answer: C
Rationale: Tactical protection reduces the casualty's and rescuer's
exposure to ongoing threats.
5. Which assessment is most appropriate after a casualty reaches
Tactical Field Care?
A. Only the injured limb
B. A systematic trauma assessment
C. Dental examination
D. Complete neurological testing before hemorrhage control
Answer: B
Rationale: Tactical Field Care allows a more systematic assessment and
treatment of life-threatening injuries.
6. What does the “M” in MARCH represent?
A. Medication
B. Massive hemorrhage
C. Movement
,D. Monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: MARCH begins with identification and control of massive
hemorrhage.
7. In the MARCH sequence, what follows massive hemorrhage?
A. Airway
B. Respiration
C. Circulation
D. Hypothermia
Answer: A
Rationale: Once catastrophic bleeding is addressed, airway
management is the next major priority.
8. What is the principal danger of uncontrolled massive hemorrhage?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hemorrhagic shock
C. Hypertension
D. Pulmonary edema
Answer: B
Rationale: Significant blood loss reduces circulating volume and tissue
perfusion, producing hemorrhagic shock.
9. Which finding most strongly suggests severe external hemorrhage?
A. Small superficial abrasion
B. Slow oozing from intact skin
C. Rapid blood loss from a wound
D. Mild bruising
Answer: C
, Rationale: Rapid blood loss can quickly compromise circulating volume
and requires immediate control.
10. What is the purpose of a tourniquet?
A. Immobilize a fracture
B. Stop life-threatening extremity bleeding
C. Treat hypothermia
D. Maintain airway patency
Answer: B
Rationale: A properly applied tourniquet can rapidly control severe
extremity hemorrhage.
11. Where should a tourniquet generally be positioned for life-
threatening extremity bleeding when the wound site is identifiable?
A. Directly over a joint
B. Proximal to the wound
C. Distal to the wound
D. Around the neck
Answer: B
Rationale: A tourniquet must be proximal to the bleeding site to stop
arterial flow into the injured area.
12. What indicates that a tourniquet is effectively controlling major
extremity bleeding?
A. Bleeding continues unchanged
B. The casualty becomes thirsty
C. Major bleeding stops
D. The limb becomes warmer
Answer: C
200+ Practice Questions, Correct Answers & Detailed
Rationales
section 1: Tactical Combat Casualty Care & Battlefield Medicine
1. What is the primary objective of Tactical Combat Casualty Care
(TCCC)?
A. Eliminate all battlefield injuries
B. Provide appropriate lifesaving care while accounting for the tactical
situation
C. Transport every casualty immediately
D. Replace definitive hospital treatment
Answer: B
Rationale: TCCC integrates trauma care with tactical considerations to
maximize casualty survival.
2. Which phase of TCCC occurs while the casualty and rescuer remain
under effective hostile fire?
A. Tactical Field Care
B. Tactical Evacuation Care
C. Care Under Fire
D. Definitive Care
Answer: C
Rationale: Care Under Fire emphasizes immediate actions that can be
safely performed while exposed to hostile fire.
3. During Care Under Fire, what is generally the highest priority?
A. Establishing an IV
,B. Controlling massive extremity hemorrhage when feasible
C. Performing a complete secondary survey
D. Measuring blood pressure
Answer: B
Rationale: Catastrophic hemorrhage can cause death rapidly and should
be addressed when tactically feasible.
4. Why is rapid movement to cover important during Care Under Fire?
A. It prevents hypothermia
B. It permits more extensive medical treatment
C. It reduces continued exposure to enemy fire
D. It guarantees airway protection
Answer: C
Rationale: Tactical protection reduces the casualty's and rescuer's
exposure to ongoing threats.
5. Which assessment is most appropriate after a casualty reaches
Tactical Field Care?
A. Only the injured limb
B. A systematic trauma assessment
C. Dental examination
D. Complete neurological testing before hemorrhage control
Answer: B
Rationale: Tactical Field Care allows a more systematic assessment and
treatment of life-threatening injuries.
6. What does the “M” in MARCH represent?
A. Medication
B. Massive hemorrhage
C. Movement
,D. Monitoring
Answer: B
Rationale: MARCH begins with identification and control of massive
hemorrhage.
7. In the MARCH sequence, what follows massive hemorrhage?
A. Airway
B. Respiration
C. Circulation
D. Hypothermia
Answer: A
Rationale: Once catastrophic bleeding is addressed, airway
management is the next major priority.
8. What is the principal danger of uncontrolled massive hemorrhage?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hemorrhagic shock
C. Hypertension
D. Pulmonary edema
Answer: B
Rationale: Significant blood loss reduces circulating volume and tissue
perfusion, producing hemorrhagic shock.
9. Which finding most strongly suggests severe external hemorrhage?
A. Small superficial abrasion
B. Slow oozing from intact skin
C. Rapid blood loss from a wound
D. Mild bruising
Answer: C
, Rationale: Rapid blood loss can quickly compromise circulating volume
and requires immediate control.
10. What is the purpose of a tourniquet?
A. Immobilize a fracture
B. Stop life-threatening extremity bleeding
C. Treat hypothermia
D. Maintain airway patency
Answer: B
Rationale: A properly applied tourniquet can rapidly control severe
extremity hemorrhage.
11. Where should a tourniquet generally be positioned for life-
threatening extremity bleeding when the wound site is identifiable?
A. Directly over a joint
B. Proximal to the wound
C. Distal to the wound
D. Around the neck
Answer: B
Rationale: A tourniquet must be proximal to the bleeding site to stop
arterial flow into the injured area.
12. What indicates that a tourniquet is effectively controlling major
extremity bleeding?
A. Bleeding continues unchanged
B. The casualty becomes thirsty
C. Major bleeding stops
D. The limb becomes warmer
Answer: C
