NU 170
Exam 1 Maternal-Child Nursing Comprehensive
Review
Exam Review • High-Yield Practice
UPDATE
Actual Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Clinical Rationales
Practice Questions with Rationales
Galen College of Nursing
NU 170
✓ 100% Verified Answers
✓ Complete Rationales Included
Exam (elaborations)
Instant PDF Download • Ready for Study
,NU 170 Exam 1 Maternal-Child Nursing Comprehensive Review 2026/2027 UPDATE – Galen
1. A nurse is reviewing the obstetric history of a patient who is currently pregnant. The
patient has a 5-year-old born at 39 weeks, a 3-year-old born at 34 weeks, and had a
miscarriage at 12 weeks. How should the nurse document her GTPAL?
A. G4, T1, P1, A1, L2
B. G3, T2, P0, A1, L2
C. G4, T2, P1, A0, L2
D. G3, T1, P1, A1, L2
Answer: A
Rationale: Gravida is 4 (current pregnancy, one full term, one preterm, one miscarriage).
Term is 1 (39-weeker). Preterm is 1 (34-weeker). Abortion is 1 (miscarriage at 12 weeks).
Living is 2.
2. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize as a potential sign of
magnesium sulfate toxicity in a patient being treated for preeclampsia?
A. Blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg
B. Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min
C. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
D. Deep tendon reflexes (DTR) of 0
, Answer: D
Rationale: Absent deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) are a classic early sign of magnesium
sulfate toxicity. Respiratory depression usually occurs after the loss of reflexes.
3. A patient at 32 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which
diagnostic procedure should the nurse expect to be contraindicated?
A. External fetal monitoring
B. Vaginal exam
C. Abdominal ultrasound
D. Blood type and cross-match
Answer: B
Rationale: Painless bright red bleeding is indicative of placenta previa. A vaginal exam is
contraindicated because it can cause placental abruption and severe hemorrhage.
4. During the fourth stage of labor, the nurse notes the patient’s fundus is boggy and
displaced to the right. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Massage the fundus until firm
B. Administer oxytocin as ordered
C. Assist the patient to void
D. Notify the provider immediately
Answer: C
Exam 1 Maternal-Child Nursing Comprehensive
Review
Exam Review • High-Yield Practice
UPDATE
Actual Questions & Verified Answers
with Detailed Clinical Rationales
Practice Questions with Rationales
Galen College of Nursing
NU 170
✓ 100% Verified Answers
✓ Complete Rationales Included
Exam (elaborations)
Instant PDF Download • Ready for Study
,NU 170 Exam 1 Maternal-Child Nursing Comprehensive Review 2026/2027 UPDATE – Galen
1. A nurse is reviewing the obstetric history of a patient who is currently pregnant. The
patient has a 5-year-old born at 39 weeks, a 3-year-old born at 34 weeks, and had a
miscarriage at 12 weeks. How should the nurse document her GTPAL?
A. G4, T1, P1, A1, L2
B. G3, T2, P0, A1, L2
C. G4, T2, P1, A0, L2
D. G3, T1, P1, A1, L2
Answer: A
Rationale: Gravida is 4 (current pregnancy, one full term, one preterm, one miscarriage).
Term is 1 (39-weeker). Preterm is 1 (34-weeker). Abortion is 1 (miscarriage at 12 weeks).
Living is 2.
2. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize as a potential sign of
magnesium sulfate toxicity in a patient being treated for preeclampsia?
A. Blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg
B. Respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min
C. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
D. Deep tendon reflexes (DTR) of 0
, Answer: D
Rationale: Absent deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) are a classic early sign of magnesium
sulfate toxicity. Respiratory depression usually occurs after the loss of reflexes.
3. A patient at 32 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which
diagnostic procedure should the nurse expect to be contraindicated?
A. External fetal monitoring
B. Vaginal exam
C. Abdominal ultrasound
D. Blood type and cross-match
Answer: B
Rationale: Painless bright red bleeding is indicative of placenta previa. A vaginal exam is
contraindicated because it can cause placental abruption and severe hemorrhage.
4. During the fourth stage of labor, the nurse notes the patient’s fundus is boggy and
displaced to the right. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Massage the fundus until firm
B. Administer oxytocin as ordered
C. Assist the patient to void
D. Notify the provider immediately
Answer: C
