,FNP 593 Week 4 APEA QBank Quiz | STDs (2026) Q&A |
USU
1. Which of the following is an example of primary prevention for sexually transmitted
infections?
A) Using a condom to prevent infection with an STD
B) Diagnosis of chlamydia prior to symptom development
C) Treatment of chlamydia concurrently with gonorrhea
D) Early treatment of sexual partners
Correct Answer: A) Using a condom to prevent infection with an STD
Rationale: Primary prevention refers to preventing an event prior to its occurrence. Using a
condom to prevent infection from an STD is primary prevention. Early diagnosis refers to
secondary prevention. Tertiary prevention refers to an intervention that has the potential to
prevent worsening of the disease.
2. A patient presents with trichomonas. State law requires reporting of STDs to the public
health department. The patient asks the NP not to report it because her husband works in the
public health department. How should this be managed by the NP?
A) Respect the patient's right to privacy and not report it
B) Tell the patient that it won't be reported, but report it anyway
C) Report it to public health as required by law
D) Report it to public health but don't divulge all the details
Correct Answer: C) Report it to public health as required by law
Rationale: If state law requires reporting of the STD, it should be reported. Patient names or
other identifying data are not part of the reporting process, so the NP's patient should not
worry about being identified. If the NP does not report it, the NP has violated state law.
,3. A patient requests screening for HIV after a sexual exposure. What are CDC's
recommendations for screening for this patient?
A) There are no recommendations for screening
B) She should be screened today, with repeat screening at 4-6 weeks, and 3 months
C) She should be rescreened in 6-12 months
D) She only requires screening if she develops symptoms of HIV
Correct Answer: B) She should be screened today, with repeat screening at 4-6 weeks, and 3
months
Rationale: A negative initial result does not ensure that she is not infected. The period within
3 months after exposure is termed the "window period" and a negative screen must be
confirmed. If a 4th generation assay is used and the screen is negative 3 months after the last
exposure, she is considered to be negative.
4. A 24-year-old female presents with abdominal pain. What additional finding supports a
diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
A) Dysuria
B) Vaginal discharge
C) Positive RPR
D) Cervical motion tenderness
Correct Answer: D) Cervical motion tenderness
Rationale: Presumptive treatment for PID should be initiated in sexually active women with
pelvic or low abdominal pain and one or more of the following on pelvic exam: cervical
motion tenderness, uterine tenderness, or adnexal tenderness.
5. Which of the following is the most common bacterial STI in the United States?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Chlamydia
C) Syphilis
, D) Trichomoniasis
Correct Answer: B) Chlamydia
Rationale: Chlamydia is the most frequently reported STI in the U.S., with approximately
1.6 million cases reported annually.
6. What is the recommended treatment for uncomplicated chlamydial infection in a non-
pregnant patient?
A) Azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose
B) Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM in a single dose
C) Penicillin G benzathine 2.4 million units IM
D) Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
Correct Answer: A) Azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose
Rationale: The recommended treatment for chlamydia is azithromycin 1 g PO single dose or
doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days. Doxycycline is not used in pregnancy.
7. A patient with chlamydia should be instructed to notify partners and avoid sexual contact
for how long after treatment?
A) 3 days
B) 7 days
C) 14 days
D) 30 days
Correct Answer: B) 7 days
Rationale: Patients should notify partners and avoid sexual contact during and for 7 days
after treatment to prevent reinfection and transmission.
USU
1. Which of the following is an example of primary prevention for sexually transmitted
infections?
A) Using a condom to prevent infection with an STD
B) Diagnosis of chlamydia prior to symptom development
C) Treatment of chlamydia concurrently with gonorrhea
D) Early treatment of sexual partners
Correct Answer: A) Using a condom to prevent infection with an STD
Rationale: Primary prevention refers to preventing an event prior to its occurrence. Using a
condom to prevent infection from an STD is primary prevention. Early diagnosis refers to
secondary prevention. Tertiary prevention refers to an intervention that has the potential to
prevent worsening of the disease.
2. A patient presents with trichomonas. State law requires reporting of STDs to the public
health department. The patient asks the NP not to report it because her husband works in the
public health department. How should this be managed by the NP?
A) Respect the patient's right to privacy and not report it
B) Tell the patient that it won't be reported, but report it anyway
C) Report it to public health as required by law
D) Report it to public health but don't divulge all the details
Correct Answer: C) Report it to public health as required by law
Rationale: If state law requires reporting of the STD, it should be reported. Patient names or
other identifying data are not part of the reporting process, so the NP's patient should not
worry about being identified. If the NP does not report it, the NP has violated state law.
,3. A patient requests screening for HIV after a sexual exposure. What are CDC's
recommendations for screening for this patient?
A) There are no recommendations for screening
B) She should be screened today, with repeat screening at 4-6 weeks, and 3 months
C) She should be rescreened in 6-12 months
D) She only requires screening if she develops symptoms of HIV
Correct Answer: B) She should be screened today, with repeat screening at 4-6 weeks, and 3
months
Rationale: A negative initial result does not ensure that she is not infected. The period within
3 months after exposure is termed the "window period" and a negative screen must be
confirmed. If a 4th generation assay is used and the screen is negative 3 months after the last
exposure, she is considered to be negative.
4. A 24-year-old female presents with abdominal pain. What additional finding supports a
diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
A) Dysuria
B) Vaginal discharge
C) Positive RPR
D) Cervical motion tenderness
Correct Answer: D) Cervical motion tenderness
Rationale: Presumptive treatment for PID should be initiated in sexually active women with
pelvic or low abdominal pain and one or more of the following on pelvic exam: cervical
motion tenderness, uterine tenderness, or adnexal tenderness.
5. Which of the following is the most common bacterial STI in the United States?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Chlamydia
C) Syphilis
, D) Trichomoniasis
Correct Answer: B) Chlamydia
Rationale: Chlamydia is the most frequently reported STI in the U.S., with approximately
1.6 million cases reported annually.
6. What is the recommended treatment for uncomplicated chlamydial infection in a non-
pregnant patient?
A) Azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose
B) Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM in a single dose
C) Penicillin G benzathine 2.4 million units IM
D) Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice daily for 7 days
Correct Answer: A) Azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose
Rationale: The recommended treatment for chlamydia is azithromycin 1 g PO single dose or
doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days. Doxycycline is not used in pregnancy.
7. A patient with chlamydia should be instructed to notify partners and avoid sexual contact
for how long after treatment?
A) 3 days
B) 7 days
C) 14 days
D) 30 days
Correct Answer: B) 7 days
Rationale: Patients should notify partners and avoid sexual contact during and for 7 days
after treatment to prevent reinfection and transmission.
