,FNP 591 Week 8 APEA QBank Quiz | Women’s Health &
Pediatrics (2026) Q&A | USU
1. A 28-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of severe left lower quadrant pain,
fever, and purulent vaginal discharge. On speculum exam, purulent cervical discharge is
noted, and cervical motion tenderness is present. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Pelvic inflammatory disease
C) Ovarian torsion
D) Appendicitis
Correct Answer: B) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Rationale: The triad of lower abdominal pain, purulent cervical discharge, and cervical
motion tenderness is classic for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Ectopic pregnancy
typically presents with amenorrhea and unilateral pain, while ovarian torsion causes sudden
severe pain without fever or discharge.
2. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pelvic pain in a woman of
reproductive age?
A) Ovarian torsion
B) Ruptured ovarian cyst
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: B) Ruptured ovarian cyst
Rationale: Ruptured ovarian cysts are a common cause of acute pelvic pain in reproductive-
age women. They often present with sudden onset of unilateral pain, sometimes accompanied
by light vaginal bleeding. Ovarian torsion is less common but more emergent.
,3. A 32-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 158/102
mmHg and 3+ proteinuria. She reports a severe headache and visual changes. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial management?
A) Oral labetalol and outpatient monitoring
B) Magnesium sulfate infusion and hospitalization
C) Immediate cesarean delivery
D) Bed rest and increased fluid intake
Correct Answer: B) Magnesium sulfate infusion and hospitalization
Rationale: This patient has severe preeclampsia with severe features (severe hypertension,
proteinuria, headache, visual changes). Magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure
prophylaxis, and hospitalization is required for close monitoring and potential delivery.
4. A 24-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of dysuria, frequency, and urgency. She
has no fever or flank pain. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B) Escherichia coli
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
D) Proteus mirabilis
Correct Answer: B) Escherichia coli
Rationale: Escherichia coli is the most common cause of uncomplicated urinary tract
infections in women, accounting for 75-90% of cases. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is the
second most common cause in young women.
5. A 16-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhea. Her breast development is Tanner
stage 4, and pelvic exam reveals a blind vaginal pouch. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A) Turner syndrome
B) Müllerian agenesis
, C) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
D) Polycystic ovary syndrome
Correct Answer: B) Müllerian agenesis
Rationale: Müllerian agenesis (Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome) presents with
primary amenorrhea, normal breast development, and a blind vaginal pouch. Turner
syndrome presents with short stature and streak gonads, while androgen insensitivity presents
with absent uterus and sparse pubic hair.
6. A 34-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain that worsens during menstruation.
She reports deep dyspareunia and dyschezia. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Uterine fibroids
B) Endometriosis
C) Adenomyosis
D) Ovarian cyst
Correct Answer: B) Endometriosis
Rationale: Cyclic pelvic pain, deep dyspareunia, and dyschezia are classic symptoms of
endometriosis. Uterine fibroids typically cause heavy bleeding and bulk symptoms, while
adenomyosis causes heavy bleeding and dysmenorrhea.
7. A 52-year-old woman presents with hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Perimenopause
C) Depression
D) Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: B) Perimenopause
Pediatrics (2026) Q&A | USU
1. A 28-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of severe left lower quadrant pain,
fever, and purulent vaginal discharge. On speculum exam, purulent cervical discharge is
noted, and cervical motion tenderness is present. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Pelvic inflammatory disease
C) Ovarian torsion
D) Appendicitis
Correct Answer: B) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Rationale: The triad of lower abdominal pain, purulent cervical discharge, and cervical
motion tenderness is classic for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). Ectopic pregnancy
typically presents with amenorrhea and unilateral pain, while ovarian torsion causes sudden
severe pain without fever or discharge.
2. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pelvic pain in a woman of
reproductive age?
A) Ovarian torsion
B) Ruptured ovarian cyst
C) Ectopic pregnancy
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: B) Ruptured ovarian cyst
Rationale: Ruptured ovarian cysts are a common cause of acute pelvic pain in reproductive-
age women. They often present with sudden onset of unilateral pain, sometimes accompanied
by light vaginal bleeding. Ovarian torsion is less common but more emergent.
,3. A 32-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with a blood pressure of 158/102
mmHg and 3+ proteinuria. She reports a severe headache and visual changes. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial management?
A) Oral labetalol and outpatient monitoring
B) Magnesium sulfate infusion and hospitalization
C) Immediate cesarean delivery
D) Bed rest and increased fluid intake
Correct Answer: B) Magnesium sulfate infusion and hospitalization
Rationale: This patient has severe preeclampsia with severe features (severe hypertension,
proteinuria, headache, visual changes). Magnesium sulfate is indicated for seizure
prophylaxis, and hospitalization is required for close monitoring and potential delivery.
4. A 24-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of dysuria, frequency, and urgency. She
has no fever or flank pain. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
A) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
B) Escherichia coli
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
D) Proteus mirabilis
Correct Answer: B) Escherichia coli
Rationale: Escherichia coli is the most common cause of uncomplicated urinary tract
infections in women, accounting for 75-90% of cases. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is the
second most common cause in young women.
5. A 16-year-old girl presents with primary amenorrhea. Her breast development is Tanner
stage 4, and pelvic exam reveals a blind vaginal pouch. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A) Turner syndrome
B) Müllerian agenesis
, C) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
D) Polycystic ovary syndrome
Correct Answer: B) Müllerian agenesis
Rationale: Müllerian agenesis (Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome) presents with
primary amenorrhea, normal breast development, and a blind vaginal pouch. Turner
syndrome presents with short stature and streak gonads, while androgen insensitivity presents
with absent uterus and sparse pubic hair.
6. A 34-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain that worsens during menstruation.
She reports deep dyspareunia and dyschezia. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Uterine fibroids
B) Endometriosis
C) Adenomyosis
D) Ovarian cyst
Correct Answer: B) Endometriosis
Rationale: Cyclic pelvic pain, deep dyspareunia, and dyschezia are classic symptoms of
endometriosis. Uterine fibroids typically cause heavy bleeding and bulk symptoms, while
adenomyosis causes heavy bleeding and dysmenorrhea.
7. A 52-year-old woman presents with hot flashes, night sweats, and vaginal dryness. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Perimenopause
C) Depression
D) Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: B) Perimenopause
