A+ VERIFIED
NURSING · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
NSG 3100 Exam 2 | Galen Fundamental Concepts
& Skills (2026/2027) – Verified Q&A | Grade A
— Complete
Official Exam
A+ Verified Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Vital Signs Assessment & Interpretation
02 Infection Prevention, Precautions & PPE
03 Skin Integrity, Pressure Injuries & Wound Care
04 Patient Safety, Mobility & Basic Comfort
05 Documentation, Communication & Clinical Judgment
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in fundamental nursing concepts and skills — from vital signs assessment and infection prevention to skin integrity, wound care,
patient safety, mobility, documentation, and clinical judgment. This original study bank targets application and analysis skills for NSG 3100
Exam 2, with full rationales for every answer. For review use only; not an institutional proctored assessment.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
75% Advanced (Galen NSG 3100) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: Vital Signs Assessment & Interpretation
Q1. A nurse obtains the following vital signs on an adult patient: temperature 98.8°F (37.1°C), pulse 88, respirations 18, blood pressure 118/74,
SpO2 97% on room air. The patient reports feeling well. The nurse should document these findings as which classification of vital signs?
A. Within normal adult ranges and requiring routine documentation only
B. Abnormal and requiring immediate provider notification
C. Borderline hypertensive and requiring recheck in 15 minutes
D. Indicative of early sepsis because the pulse is elevated
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
All listed values fall within accepted adult normal ranges (temp ~97.6–99.5°F, pulse 60–100, RR 12–20, BP <120/<80, SpO2 ≥95% on room air). No immediate
intervention or recheck is required beyond routine documentation.
Q2. While assessing orthostatic blood pressure, the nurse records 128/78 supine, 122/74 sitting, and 98/60 standing. The patient reports
light-headedness upon standing. Which nursing action takes priority?
A. Document the findings as normal postural variation and continue the assessment
B. Assist the patient to a sitting or lying position and reassess safety before further ambulation
C. Immediately administer a fluid bolus without further assessment
D. Encourage the patient to stand quickly to improve venous return
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A drop of ≥20 mmHg systolic (or ≥10 mmHg diastolic) with symptoms indicates orthostatic hypotension. Safety is the priority: return the patient to a safe position and
prevent falls before any other intervention.
Q3. An older adult’s radial pulse is irregularly irregular at 112 beats/min. The nurse plans to obtain an apical pulse. Which technique is correct?
A. Count the apical rate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4
B. Palpate the carotid artery for 30 seconds while listening to the apex
C. Count the apical rate for a full 60 seconds using a stethoscope at the fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
D. Use the brachial artery because it is more accurate in older adults
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
An irregular pulse requires a full 60-second apical count at the PMI (5th ICS, MCL) to obtain an accurate rate and detect deficits. Short counts introduce significant
error with irregular rhythms.
Q4. A postoperative patient has a temperature of 96.4°F (35.8°C) one hour after return from the PACU. Which intervention is most appropriate
initially?
A. Administer an antipyretic as ordered for fever
B. Apply a cooling blanket to prevent further temperature rise
C. Document the finding as expected and take no action
D. Provide warm blankets, ensure a warm environment, and recheck temperature
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Mild postoperative hypothermia is common. Rewarming measures (warm environment, blankets) and reassessment are first-line. Antipyretics and cooling are
inappropriate for hypothermia.
Q5. When preparing to measure blood pressure on a patient with a right-sided mastectomy and left-arm AV fistula, the nurse should obtain the
reading from which site?
A. Right arm because the fistula is on the left
B. Left arm because the mastectomy is on the right
C. Right forearm only, avoiding both upper arms
D. Either thigh using an appropriate-sized cuff
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Neither upper arm is appropriate (mastectomy contraindicates the right; AV fistula contraindicates the left). A thigh measurement with a properly sized cuff is the safe
alternative.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, SECTION 1: Vital Signs Assessment & Interpretation
Q6. A nurse notes a patient’s SpO2 is 89% on room air with respiratory rate 24 and mild accessory-muscle use. After applying 2 L/min nasal
cannula, which reassessment finding best indicates improvement?
A. SpO2 remains 89% but the patient feels less anxious
B. Respiratory rate increases to 28 while SpO2 stays 89%
C. SpO2 rises to 94% and respiratory effort decreases
D. The patient develops nasal dryness without SpO2 change
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Effective oxygen therapy should raise SpO2 into an acceptable range and reduce work of breathing. Persistent hypoxia or increased work of breathing indicates the
need for further intervention.
Q7. An adult patient’s blood pressure is measured as 148/92 mmHg on two separate occasions. According to current adult blood-pressure
categories, this reading is classified as which stage?
A. Stage 1 hypertension
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Stage 2 hypertension
D. Hypertensive crisis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Stage 1 hypertension is defined as systolic 130–139 or diastolic 80–89. 148/92 falls into Stage 1 (or higher if confirmed). Stage 2 begins at ≥140/≥90; crisis is
markedly higher with acute symptoms.
Q8. A nurse is teaching a nursing assistant about factors that can falsely elevate a blood-pressure reading. Which statement by the assistant
indicates correct understanding?
A. Using a cuff that is too large will produce a falsely high reading
B. Taking the blood pressure after the patient has rested 10 minutes always lowers it
C. Placing the arm above heart level increases the measured pressure
D. Crossing the patient’s legs during measurement can elevate the reading
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Crossed legs, unsupported arm, cuff too small, and recent activity or caffeine can elevate readings. A cuff that is too large underestimates pressure; arm above heart
level underestimates pressure.
Q9. While auscultating an apical pulse the nurse hears a distinct S3 sound in a 70-year-old patient. The nurse recognizes that an S3 in this age
group most often indicates which condition?
A. Normal finding related to aging
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Possible heart failure or volume overload
D. Pericarditis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
An S3 in adults over 40 is usually pathologic and associated with heart failure or volume overload. It is more commonly normal in children and young adults.
Q10. A patient with a history of hypertension is found to have a blood pressure of 88/54 mmHg, heart rate 118, and cool clammy skin after
receiving the first dose of a new antihypertensive. Which priority action should the nurse take?
A. Document the findings and recheck in one hour
B. Encourage oral fluids and continue routine monitoring
C. Administer a second dose of the antihypertensive as scheduled
D. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position and notify the provider immediately
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Acute hypotension with compensatory tachycardia and signs of poor perfusion after a new antihypertensive requires immediate intervention to restore perfusion and
provider notification. Continuing the drug or delaying action is unsafe.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
, SECTION 1: Vital Signs Assessment & Interpretation
Q11. The nurse is preparing to assess a 3-year-old child’s vital signs. Which pulse site is preferred for the initial assessment in this age group?
A. Radial artery
B. Carotid artery only
C. Popliteal artery
D. Apical or brachial pulse
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
In infants and young children the apical or brachial pulse is preferred because peripheral pulses may be difficult to palpate accurately and apical rates are more
reliable.
Q12. A patient’s temperature is 102.4°F (39.1°C). The nurse implements cooling measures. Which additional intervention is essential while the
temperature is elevated?
A. Encourage oral fluids and monitor intake and output because of increased metabolic demand and insensible losses
B. Restrict all oral fluids to prevent fluid overload
C. Keep the patient NPO until the fever resolves
D. Administer a diuretic to reduce fluid volume
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Fever increases metabolic rate and insensible fluid loss. Adequate hydration is required; fluid restriction or diuretics would worsen dehydration risk.
Q13. When measuring blood pressure, the nurse inflates the cuff 30 mmHg above the point where the radial pulse disappears. This technique is
used primarily to avoid which error?
A. Underestimation of systolic pressure due to an auscultatory gap
B. Overestimation of diastolic pressure
C. Falsely low readings from a loose cuff
D. Inaccurate pulse oximetry values
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Palpatory estimation of systolic pressure prevents missing an auscultatory gap, which can cause underestimation of true systolic pressure if the cuff is inflated only to
a lower level.
Q14. A nurse compares simultaneous radial and apical pulses and notes an apical rate of 96 and a radial rate of 78. How should this finding be
documented?
A. Normal sinus rhythm with no deficit
B. Bradycardia requiring immediate intervention
C. Pulse deficit of 18 beats per minute
D. Hyperkinetic pulse secondary to fever
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A pulse deficit exists when the apical rate exceeds the radial rate, indicating that some apical beats are not transmitted to the periphery (often with atrial fibrillation or
premature beats).
Q15. An adult patient has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min after receiving opioid analgesia. Which assessment finding is of greatest concern?
A. SpO2 96% on room air with easy breathing
B. Respiratory rate of 10 after stimulation
C. Mild nasal flaring without desaturation
D. SpO2 88% with shallow respirations and decreased level of consciousness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Opioid-induced respiratory depression with hypoxia and altered consciousness is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention (stimulation, oxygen,
possible naloxone, provider notification).
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 4
NURSING · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
NSG 3100 Exam 2 | Galen Fundamental Concepts
& Skills (2026/2027) – Verified Q&A | Grade A
— Complete
Official Exam
A+ Verified Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Vital Signs Assessment & Interpretation
02 Infection Prevention, Precautions & PPE
03 Skin Integrity, Pressure Injuries & Wound Care
04 Patient Safety, Mobility & Basic Comfort
05 Documentation, Communication & Clinical Judgment
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in fundamental nursing concepts and skills — from vital signs assessment and infection prevention to skin integrity, wound care,
patient safety, mobility, documentation, and clinical judgment. This original study bank targets application and analysis skills for NSG 3100
Exam 2, with full rationales for every answer. For review use only; not an institutional proctored assessment.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
75% Advanced (Galen NSG 3100) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: Vital Signs Assessment & Interpretation
Q1. A nurse obtains the following vital signs on an adult patient: temperature 98.8°F (37.1°C), pulse 88, respirations 18, blood pressure 118/74,
SpO2 97% on room air. The patient reports feeling well. The nurse should document these findings as which classification of vital signs?
A. Within normal adult ranges and requiring routine documentation only
B. Abnormal and requiring immediate provider notification
C. Borderline hypertensive and requiring recheck in 15 minutes
D. Indicative of early sepsis because the pulse is elevated
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
All listed values fall within accepted adult normal ranges (temp ~97.6–99.5°F, pulse 60–100, RR 12–20, BP <120/<80, SpO2 ≥95% on room air). No immediate
intervention or recheck is required beyond routine documentation.
Q2. While assessing orthostatic blood pressure, the nurse records 128/78 supine, 122/74 sitting, and 98/60 standing. The patient reports
light-headedness upon standing. Which nursing action takes priority?
A. Document the findings as normal postural variation and continue the assessment
B. Assist the patient to a sitting or lying position and reassess safety before further ambulation
C. Immediately administer a fluid bolus without further assessment
D. Encourage the patient to stand quickly to improve venous return
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A drop of ≥20 mmHg systolic (or ≥10 mmHg diastolic) with symptoms indicates orthostatic hypotension. Safety is the priority: return the patient to a safe position and
prevent falls before any other intervention.
Q3. An older adult’s radial pulse is irregularly irregular at 112 beats/min. The nurse plans to obtain an apical pulse. Which technique is correct?
A. Count the apical rate for 15 seconds and multiply by 4
B. Palpate the carotid artery for 30 seconds while listening to the apex
C. Count the apical rate for a full 60 seconds using a stethoscope at the fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
D. Use the brachial artery because it is more accurate in older adults
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
An irregular pulse requires a full 60-second apical count at the PMI (5th ICS, MCL) to obtain an accurate rate and detect deficits. Short counts introduce significant
error with irregular rhythms.
Q4. A postoperative patient has a temperature of 96.4°F (35.8°C) one hour after return from the PACU. Which intervention is most appropriate
initially?
A. Administer an antipyretic as ordered for fever
B. Apply a cooling blanket to prevent further temperature rise
C. Document the finding as expected and take no action
D. Provide warm blankets, ensure a warm environment, and recheck temperature
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Mild postoperative hypothermia is common. Rewarming measures (warm environment, blankets) and reassessment are first-line. Antipyretics and cooling are
inappropriate for hypothermia.
Q5. When preparing to measure blood pressure on a patient with a right-sided mastectomy and left-arm AV fistula, the nurse should obtain the
reading from which site?
A. Right arm because the fistula is on the left
B. Left arm because the mastectomy is on the right
C. Right forearm only, avoiding both upper arms
D. Either thigh using an appropriate-sized cuff
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Neither upper arm is appropriate (mastectomy contraindicates the right; AV fistula contraindicates the left). A thigh measurement with a properly sized cuff is the safe
alternative.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, SECTION 1: Vital Signs Assessment & Interpretation
Q6. A nurse notes a patient’s SpO2 is 89% on room air with respiratory rate 24 and mild accessory-muscle use. After applying 2 L/min nasal
cannula, which reassessment finding best indicates improvement?
A. SpO2 remains 89% but the patient feels less anxious
B. Respiratory rate increases to 28 while SpO2 stays 89%
C. SpO2 rises to 94% and respiratory effort decreases
D. The patient develops nasal dryness without SpO2 change
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Effective oxygen therapy should raise SpO2 into an acceptable range and reduce work of breathing. Persistent hypoxia or increased work of breathing indicates the
need for further intervention.
Q7. An adult patient’s blood pressure is measured as 148/92 mmHg on two separate occasions. According to current adult blood-pressure
categories, this reading is classified as which stage?
A. Stage 1 hypertension
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Stage 2 hypertension
D. Hypertensive crisis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Stage 1 hypertension is defined as systolic 130–139 or diastolic 80–89. 148/92 falls into Stage 1 (or higher if confirmed). Stage 2 begins at ≥140/≥90; crisis is
markedly higher with acute symptoms.
Q8. A nurse is teaching a nursing assistant about factors that can falsely elevate a blood-pressure reading. Which statement by the assistant
indicates correct understanding?
A. Using a cuff that is too large will produce a falsely high reading
B. Taking the blood pressure after the patient has rested 10 minutes always lowers it
C. Placing the arm above heart level increases the measured pressure
D. Crossing the patient’s legs during measurement can elevate the reading
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Crossed legs, unsupported arm, cuff too small, and recent activity or caffeine can elevate readings. A cuff that is too large underestimates pressure; arm above heart
level underestimates pressure.
Q9. While auscultating an apical pulse the nurse hears a distinct S3 sound in a 70-year-old patient. The nurse recognizes that an S3 in this age
group most often indicates which condition?
A. Normal finding related to aging
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Possible heart failure or volume overload
D. Pericarditis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
An S3 in adults over 40 is usually pathologic and associated with heart failure or volume overload. It is more commonly normal in children and young adults.
Q10. A patient with a history of hypertension is found to have a blood pressure of 88/54 mmHg, heart rate 118, and cool clammy skin after
receiving the first dose of a new antihypertensive. Which priority action should the nurse take?
A. Document the findings and recheck in one hour
B. Encourage oral fluids and continue routine monitoring
C. Administer a second dose of the antihypertensive as scheduled
D. Place the patient in Trendelenburg position and notify the provider immediately
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Acute hypotension with compensatory tachycardia and signs of poor perfusion after a new antihypertensive requires immediate intervention to restore perfusion and
provider notification. Continuing the drug or delaying action is unsafe.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
, SECTION 1: Vital Signs Assessment & Interpretation
Q11. The nurse is preparing to assess a 3-year-old child’s vital signs. Which pulse site is preferred for the initial assessment in this age group?
A. Radial artery
B. Carotid artery only
C. Popliteal artery
D. Apical or brachial pulse
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
In infants and young children the apical or brachial pulse is preferred because peripheral pulses may be difficult to palpate accurately and apical rates are more
reliable.
Q12. A patient’s temperature is 102.4°F (39.1°C). The nurse implements cooling measures. Which additional intervention is essential while the
temperature is elevated?
A. Encourage oral fluids and monitor intake and output because of increased metabolic demand and insensible losses
B. Restrict all oral fluids to prevent fluid overload
C. Keep the patient NPO until the fever resolves
D. Administer a diuretic to reduce fluid volume
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Fever increases metabolic rate and insensible fluid loss. Adequate hydration is required; fluid restriction or diuretics would worsen dehydration risk.
Q13. When measuring blood pressure, the nurse inflates the cuff 30 mmHg above the point where the radial pulse disappears. This technique is
used primarily to avoid which error?
A. Underestimation of systolic pressure due to an auscultatory gap
B. Overestimation of diastolic pressure
C. Falsely low readings from a loose cuff
D. Inaccurate pulse oximetry values
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Palpatory estimation of systolic pressure prevents missing an auscultatory gap, which can cause underestimation of true systolic pressure if the cuff is inflated only to
a lower level.
Q14. A nurse compares simultaneous radial and apical pulses and notes an apical rate of 96 and a radial rate of 78. How should this finding be
documented?
A. Normal sinus rhythm with no deficit
B. Bradycardia requiring immediate intervention
C. Pulse deficit of 18 beats per minute
D. Hyperkinetic pulse secondary to fever
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A pulse deficit exists when the apical rate exceeds the radial rate, indicating that some apical beats are not transmitted to the periphery (often with atrial fibrillation or
premature beats).
Q15. An adult patient has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min after receiving opioid analgesia. Which assessment finding is of greatest concern?
A. SpO2 96% on room air with easy breathing
B. Respiratory rate of 10 after stimulation
C. Mild nasal flaring without desaturation
D. SpO2 88% with shallow respirations and decreased level of consciousness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Opioid-induced respiratory depression with hypoxia and altered consciousness is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention (stimulation, oxygen,
possible naloxone, provider notification).
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 4
