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NYC EMS ADVANCED EMERGENCY MEDICAL
TECHNICIAN (AEMT) CERTIFICATION EXAM 2026/2027
COMPLETE (150) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
EMS
Prepare effectively for the NYC EMS Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT)
Certification Exam with this focused study resource. It supports review of advanced
patient assessment, airway management, emergency pharmacology, trauma care,
medical emergencies, and clinical decision-making. Use the material to reinforce your
knowledge, review high-yield topics, and identify areas that may require additional
study. This resource is suited for AEMT students, EMS professionals, emergency
medical trainees, and candidates preparing for NYC EMS AEMT certification.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
Section 1: Airway, Respiration & Ventilation (Questions 1–25)
Which of the following is the priority intervention for a patient with a partially
obstructed airway due to blood and debris following a trauma?
A) Administer high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
B) Insert a nasopharyngeal airway
C) Suction the airway while maintaining manual cervical spine stabilization
D) Perform a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver
Answer: C) Suction the airway while maintaining manual cervical spine
stabilization
Rationale: Airway obstruction from blood and debris must be cleared
immediately with suctioning. In a trauma patient, manual cervical spine
stabilization must be maintained throughout the procedure to prevent
further spinal injury.
An AEMT is preparing to ventilate a 45-year-old apneic patient using a bag-
valve-mask (BVM) device with supplemental oxygen. What is the correct
ventilation rate for this patient?
A) 8–10 breaths per minute
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B) 10–12 breaths per minute
C) 12–15 breaths per minute
D) 15–20 breaths per minute
Answer: B) 10–12 breaths per minute
Rationale: For an adult patient in respiratory arrest, the recommended
BVM ventilation rate is 10–12 breaths per minute, with each breath
delivered over 1 second. This rate provides adequate ventilation without
causing gastric distention or hyperventilation.
Which airway adjunct is most appropriate for a responsive patient with an
intact gag reflex who requires airway support?
A) Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
B) Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
C) Endotracheal tube
D) Supraglottic airway
Answer: B) Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
Rationale: An NPA is the preferred airway adjunct for responsive patients
with an intact gag reflex because it does not stimulate the gag reflex.
NPAs are well-tolerated in conscious patients and do not require the
patient to be unresponsive.
A patient with a suspected cervical spine injury is found unresponsive and
apneic. What is the most appropriate technique for opening the airway?
A) Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver
B) Jaw-thrust maneuver
C) Neck extension with head tilt
D) Oropharyngeal airway insertion only
Answer: B) Jaw-thrust maneuver
Rationale: The jaw-thrust maneuver is the preferred technique for opening
the airway in patients with suspected cervical spine injury, as it minimizes
cervical spine movement while lifting the jaw forward to open the airway.
An AEMT is monitoring a patient receiving supplemental oxygen via a non-
rebreather mask. What is the minimum oxygen concentration this device can
deliver when the reservoir bag is kept inflated?
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A) 40–60%
B) 60–80%
C) 80–95%
D) 95–100%
Answer: C) 80–95%
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask with a properly inflated reservoir bag
and a tight seal can deliver oxygen concentrations of 80–95% (up to 100%
if flow is adequate). It is the preferred device for delivering high-
concentration oxygen to spontaneously breathing patients.
An AEMT is caring for a patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax
following a penetrating chest injury. The patient is in severe respiratory
distress with absent breath sounds on the left side. What is the priority
intervention?
A) Apply an occlusive dressing taped on three sides
B) Needle decompression of the chest
C) Administer high-flow oxygen
D) Perform a finger thoracostomy
Answer: B) Needle decompression of the chest
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening emergency
requiring immediate needle decompression. The needle should be
inserted in the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the
affected side. This condition requires immediate intervention before
transport.
Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of a nasopharyngeal
airway?
A) Unresponsive patient with no gag reflex
B) Suspected basilar skull fracture
C) Patient with excessive oral secretions
D) Patient with a clenched jaw
Answer: B) Suspected basilar skull fracture
Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway is contraindicated in patients with
suspected basilar skull fracture because the device could be
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inadvertently passed through a fracture in the cribriform plate into the
cranial cavity, potentially causing brain injury.
A patient with a history of COPD is receiving oxygen via a non-rebreather mask
at 15 L/min. The patient's SpO₂ is 94%. What is the most appropriate AEMT
action?
A) Decrease the oxygen flow to 2 L/min
B) Maintain the current oxygen delivery
C) Switch to a nasal cannula at 6 L/min
D) Remove oxygen entirely
Answer: B) Maintain the current oxygen delivery
Rationale: In the prehospital setting, oxygenation takes priority over
concerns about suppressing the hypoxic drive. A patient with respiratory
distress and SpO₂ below 95% should continue to receive high-flow
oxygen. The hypoxic drive is a rare phenomenon and should not prevent
appropriate oxygen administration.
End-tidal carbon dioxide (EtCO₂) monitoring is most useful for:
A) Confirming proper endotracheal tube placement
B) Measuring oxygen saturation
C) Assessing blood pressure
D) Monitoring cardiac rhythm
Answer: A) Confirming proper endotracheal tube placement
Rationale: EtCO₂ monitoring (capnography) is the gold standard for
confirming proper endotracheal tube placement. In a properly placed
endotracheal tube, EtCO₂ should be detectable after ventilation. It is also
useful for monitoring the effectiveness of CPR and detecting return of
spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
A 28-year-old male is in respiratory distress with stridor and drooling. He
appears anxious and is sitting upright, leaning forward. What is the most likely
diagnosis and appropriate AEMT action?
A) Anaphylaxis; administer epinephrine
B) Epiglottitis; do not agitate the patient and transport immediately
C) Asthma; administer albuterol nebulizer
D) Foreign body airway obstruction; perform abdominal thrusts
NYC EMS ADVANCED EMERGENCY MEDICAL
TECHNICIAN (AEMT) CERTIFICATION EXAM 2026/2027
COMPLETE (150) CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.
EMS
Prepare effectively for the NYC EMS Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT)
Certification Exam with this focused study resource. It supports review of advanced
patient assessment, airway management, emergency pharmacology, trauma care,
medical emergencies, and clinical decision-making. Use the material to reinforce your
knowledge, review high-yield topics, and identify areas that may require additional
study. This resource is suited for AEMT students, EMS professionals, emergency
medical trainees, and candidates preparing for NYC EMS AEMT certification.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
Section 1: Airway, Respiration & Ventilation (Questions 1–25)
Which of the following is the priority intervention for a patient with a partially
obstructed airway due to blood and debris following a trauma?
A) Administer high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
B) Insert a nasopharyngeal airway
C) Suction the airway while maintaining manual cervical spine stabilization
D) Perform a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver
Answer: C) Suction the airway while maintaining manual cervical spine
stabilization
Rationale: Airway obstruction from blood and debris must be cleared
immediately with suctioning. In a trauma patient, manual cervical spine
stabilization must be maintained throughout the procedure to prevent
further spinal injury.
An AEMT is preparing to ventilate a 45-year-old apneic patient using a bag-
valve-mask (BVM) device with supplemental oxygen. What is the correct
ventilation rate for this patient?
A) 8–10 breaths per minute
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B) 10–12 breaths per minute
C) 12–15 breaths per minute
D) 15–20 breaths per minute
Answer: B) 10–12 breaths per minute
Rationale: For an adult patient in respiratory arrest, the recommended
BVM ventilation rate is 10–12 breaths per minute, with each breath
delivered over 1 second. This rate provides adequate ventilation without
causing gastric distention or hyperventilation.
Which airway adjunct is most appropriate for a responsive patient with an
intact gag reflex who requires airway support?
A) Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
B) Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
C) Endotracheal tube
D) Supraglottic airway
Answer: B) Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
Rationale: An NPA is the preferred airway adjunct for responsive patients
with an intact gag reflex because it does not stimulate the gag reflex.
NPAs are well-tolerated in conscious patients and do not require the
patient to be unresponsive.
A patient with a suspected cervical spine injury is found unresponsive and
apneic. What is the most appropriate technique for opening the airway?
A) Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver
B) Jaw-thrust maneuver
C) Neck extension with head tilt
D) Oropharyngeal airway insertion only
Answer: B) Jaw-thrust maneuver
Rationale: The jaw-thrust maneuver is the preferred technique for opening
the airway in patients with suspected cervical spine injury, as it minimizes
cervical spine movement while lifting the jaw forward to open the airway.
An AEMT is monitoring a patient receiving supplemental oxygen via a non-
rebreather mask. What is the minimum oxygen concentration this device can
deliver when the reservoir bag is kept inflated?
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A) 40–60%
B) 60–80%
C) 80–95%
D) 95–100%
Answer: C) 80–95%
Rationale: A non-rebreather mask with a properly inflated reservoir bag
and a tight seal can deliver oxygen concentrations of 80–95% (up to 100%
if flow is adequate). It is the preferred device for delivering high-
concentration oxygen to spontaneously breathing patients.
An AEMT is caring for a patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax
following a penetrating chest injury. The patient is in severe respiratory
distress with absent breath sounds on the left side. What is the priority
intervention?
A) Apply an occlusive dressing taped on three sides
B) Needle decompression of the chest
C) Administer high-flow oxygen
D) Perform a finger thoracostomy
Answer: B) Needle decompression of the chest
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening emergency
requiring immediate needle decompression. The needle should be
inserted in the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the
affected side. This condition requires immediate intervention before
transport.
Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of a nasopharyngeal
airway?
A) Unresponsive patient with no gag reflex
B) Suspected basilar skull fracture
C) Patient with excessive oral secretions
D) Patient with a clenched jaw
Answer: B) Suspected basilar skull fracture
Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway is contraindicated in patients with
suspected basilar skull fracture because the device could be
, Page 4 of 55
inadvertently passed through a fracture in the cribriform plate into the
cranial cavity, potentially causing brain injury.
A patient with a history of COPD is receiving oxygen via a non-rebreather mask
at 15 L/min. The patient's SpO₂ is 94%. What is the most appropriate AEMT
action?
A) Decrease the oxygen flow to 2 L/min
B) Maintain the current oxygen delivery
C) Switch to a nasal cannula at 6 L/min
D) Remove oxygen entirely
Answer: B) Maintain the current oxygen delivery
Rationale: In the prehospital setting, oxygenation takes priority over
concerns about suppressing the hypoxic drive. A patient with respiratory
distress and SpO₂ below 95% should continue to receive high-flow
oxygen. The hypoxic drive is a rare phenomenon and should not prevent
appropriate oxygen administration.
End-tidal carbon dioxide (EtCO₂) monitoring is most useful for:
A) Confirming proper endotracheal tube placement
B) Measuring oxygen saturation
C) Assessing blood pressure
D) Monitoring cardiac rhythm
Answer: A) Confirming proper endotracheal tube placement
Rationale: EtCO₂ monitoring (capnography) is the gold standard for
confirming proper endotracheal tube placement. In a properly placed
endotracheal tube, EtCO₂ should be detectable after ventilation. It is also
useful for monitoring the effectiveness of CPR and detecting return of
spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
A 28-year-old male is in respiratory distress with stridor and drooling. He
appears anxious and is sitting upright, leaning forward. What is the most likely
diagnosis and appropriate AEMT action?
A) Anaphylaxis; administer epinephrine
B) Epiglottitis; do not agitate the patient and transport immediately
C) Asthma; administer albuterol nebulizer
D) Foreign body airway obstruction; perform abdominal thrusts
