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NUR 231 FINAL EXAM – ADULT NURSING II – ILLINOIS STATE UNIVERSITY 2026/2027 COMPLETE CURRENT TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES.

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Prepare for the NUR 231 Final Exam with this focused Adult Nursing II study resource from Illinois State University. It is designed to help reinforce essential adult nursing concepts, clinical decision-making, patient care principles, and key medical-surgical topics. Use it to review important material, identify areas requiring additional study, and strengthen your exam readiness. This resource serves as a convenient supplement to coursework and supports a structured, confident approach to final exam preparation.

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NUR 231 FINAL EXAM – ADULT NURSING II – ILLINOIS
STATE UNIVERSITY 2026/2027 COMPLETE CURRENT
TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES.
NURSING
Prepare for the NUR 231 Final Exam with this focused Adult Nursing II study resource
from Illinois State University. It is designed to help reinforce essential adult nursing
concepts, clinical decision-making, patient care principles, and key medical-surgical
topics. Use it to review important material, identify areas requiring additional study,
and strengthen your exam readiness. This resource serves as a convenient
supplement to coursework and supports a structured, confident approach to final
exam preparation.



MULTIPLE CHOICE.
Set 1: Cardiovascular (1–20)
1. A patient arrives with crushing chest pain. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Administer morphine
B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
C. Give nitroglycerin
D. Start IV fluids
Answer: B
Rationale: For suspected MI, obtaining a 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes is
priority to identify STEMI and guide reperfusion. Other interventions
follow.
2. Which assessment finding indicates worsening heart failure?
A. Weight loss
B. Decreased edema
C. Rapid weight gain
D. Increased urine output

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Answer: C
Rationale: Rapid weight gain (2–3 lb/day) indicates fluid retention and
worsening HF.
3. A patient on digoxin reports nausea and yellow-green halos. What is the
priority action?
A. Administer digoxin
B. Hold digoxin and notify the provider
C. Encourage fluids
D. Check blood glucose
Answer: B
Rationale: These are signs of digoxin toxicity; hold the drug and notify the
provider.
4. Which side effect is common with ACE inhibitors?
A. Dry cough
B. Bradycardia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Peripheral edema
Answer: A
Rationale: ACE inhibitors cause dry cough due to bradykinin
accumulation.
5. A patient with angina takes sublingual nitroglycerin. What instruction is
correct?
A. Swallow with water
B. Take up to 3 doses 5 minutes apart; call 911 if pain persists
C. Chew the tablet
D. Take with food
Answer: B
Rationale: Sublingual NTG is taken every 5 minutes up to 3 doses; if pain
persists, call 911.
6. A patient with atrial fibrillation is on warfarin. The therapeutic INR is:
A. 0.5–1.5
B. 2–3

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C. 4–5
D. 6–8
Answer: B
Rationale: For AF, the INR goal is 2–3 to prevent thromboembolism.
7. Post cardiac catheterization, the priority assessment is:
A. Pedal pulses and puncture site
B. Lung sounds
C. Bowel sounds
D. Pupil response
Answer: A
Rationale: Monitor for bleeding/hematoma and circulation distal to the
catheter site.
8. Peripheral arterial disease manifestations include:
A. Warm, swollen legs
B. Intermittent claudication and diminished pulses
C. Dependent edema
D. Varicose veins
Answer: B
Rationale: PAD causes decreased arterial flow, leading to claudication
and weak pulses.
9. DVT prevention includes:
A. Bed rest
B. Early ambulation and SCDs
C. Massaging the legs
D. Elevating legs above the heart
Answer: B
Rationale: Early ambulation and sequential compression devices prevent
venous stasis.
10. A pulsatile abdominal mass suggests:
A. Aortic aneurysm
B. Appendicitis

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