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NUR 231 FINAL 1 – ADULT NURSING II – ILLINOIS STATE
UNIVERSITY 2026/2027 COMPLETE CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
NURSING
Prepare for NUR 231 Exam 1 with this focused Adult Nursing II study resource from
Illinois State University. It is designed to reinforce essential adult nursing concepts,
patient care principles, clinical judgment, and medical-surgical nursing topics. Use it
to review key material, strengthen your understanding, and identify areas that may
require additional study. This resource provides a structured supplement to your
coursework and can help build confidence before the exam.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
Set 1: Cardiovascular (1–20)
1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should
teach the patient to:
A. Take the medication only when symptomatic
B. Monitor daily weight and report gains >2 lb/day
C. Expect an immediate increase in heart rate
D. Stop the drug if dizziness occurs
Answer: B
Rationale: Daily weight monitoring detects fluid retention early.
Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that improves survival in HF but can cause
dizziness; patients should not stop abruptly.
2. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient receiving
furosemide?
A. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
B. Serum potassium 3.1 mEq/L
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Weight loss of 1 lb/day
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Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide causes potassium loss; hypokalemia increases
risk of dysrhythmias. Normal potassium is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L.
3. A patient with atrial fibrillation is started on apixaban. The nurse should
instruct the patient to:
A. Take the medication with food
B. Avoid all green leafy vegetables
C. Report unusual bleeding or bruising
D. Monitor INR daily
Answer: C
Rationale: Apixaban is a DOAC that increases bleeding risk. Unlike
warfarin, it does not require INR monitoring or dietary vitamin K
restriction.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient after coronary artery bypass graft
(CABG). Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Chest tube drainage of 50 mL/hr for 2 hours
B. Temperature 99.8°F
C. Incisional pain 4/10
D. Heart rate 90 beats/min
Answer: A
Rationale: Chest tube drainage >100 mL/hr or persistent bleeding may
indicate hemorrhage/tamponade. 50 mL/hr for 2 hours is excessive and
needs notification.
5. A patient with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) asks why walking
causes leg pain. The nurse explains:
A. "Blood flow to your legs is reduced, causing ischemia during exercise."
B. "You have a blood clot in your leg."
C. "Your veins are inflamed."
D. "You need more potassium."
Answer: A
Rationale: PAD causes arterial narrowing; exercise increases oxygen
demand, leading to intermittent claudication.
, Page 3 of 34
6. Which medication is a first-line treatment for hypertension in a patient
with asthma?
A. Propranolol
B. Metoprolol
C. Diltiazem
D. Lisinopril
Answer: C
Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that does not cause
bronchospasm. Beta-blockers (propranolol, metoprolol) can worsen
asthma. ACE inhibitors are also safe but diltiazem is preferred if beta-
blockers are contraindicated.
7. A patient on heparin has a PTT of 95 seconds. The therapeutic range is
1.5–2.5 times control. The control is 30 seconds. What is the priority
action?
A. Continue the infusion
B. Stop the infusion and prepare protamine sulfate
C. Increase the infusion rate
D. Administer vitamin K
Answer: B
Rationale: Therapeutic PTT is 45–75 seconds (1.5–2.5 × 30). A PTT of 95 is
elevated, indicating increased bleeding risk. Stop heparin and give
protamine sulfate if needed.
8. A patient with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) reports sudden
severe back pain. The nurse should:
A. Administer pain medication and reassess in 1 hour
B. Prepare for immediate surgery
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Apply heat to the back
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden severe back pain in AAA may indicate rupture, a
surgical emergency.
, Page 4 of 34
9. Which finding indicates cardiogenic shock?
A. Warm, flushed skin
B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
C. Blood pressure 82/50 mm Hg, cool extremities
D. Heart rate 60 beats/min
Answer: C
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock causes pump failure, leading to
hypotension, cool extremities, and decreased urine output.
10. A patient is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which instruction
is most important?
A. "You may eat a light breakfast."
B. "Hold your metformin for 48 hours after the procedure."
C. "You will need to lie flat for 2–6 hours after the procedure."
D. "You can drive yourself home."
Answer: C
Rationale: After femoral access, the patient must lie flat to prevent
bleeding. Metformin may be held, but lying flat is a direct post-procedure
instruction.
11. A patient with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse
should monitor for:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic; it can cause
hyperkalemia.
12. Which ECG finding is characteristic of hypokalemia?
A. Peaked T waves
B. U waves
C. Widened QRS
D. ST elevation
NUR 231 FINAL 1 – ADULT NURSING II – ILLINOIS STATE
UNIVERSITY 2026/2027 COMPLETE CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
NURSING
Prepare for NUR 231 Exam 1 with this focused Adult Nursing II study resource from
Illinois State University. It is designed to reinforce essential adult nursing concepts,
patient care principles, clinical judgment, and medical-surgical nursing topics. Use it
to review key material, strengthen your understanding, and identify areas that may
require additional study. This resource provides a structured supplement to your
coursework and can help build confidence before the exam.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
Set 1: Cardiovascular (1–20)
1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should
teach the patient to:
A. Take the medication only when symptomatic
B. Monitor daily weight and report gains >2 lb/day
C. Expect an immediate increase in heart rate
D. Stop the drug if dizziness occurs
Answer: B
Rationale: Daily weight monitoring detects fluid retention early.
Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that improves survival in HF but can cause
dizziness; patients should not stop abruptly.
2. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient receiving
furosemide?
A. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
B. Serum potassium 3.1 mEq/L
C. Urine output 50 mL/hr
D. Weight loss of 1 lb/day
, Page 2 of 34
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide causes potassium loss; hypokalemia increases
risk of dysrhythmias. Normal potassium is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L.
3. A patient with atrial fibrillation is started on apixaban. The nurse should
instruct the patient to:
A. Take the medication with food
B. Avoid all green leafy vegetables
C. Report unusual bleeding or bruising
D. Monitor INR daily
Answer: C
Rationale: Apixaban is a DOAC that increases bleeding risk. Unlike
warfarin, it does not require INR monitoring or dietary vitamin K
restriction.
4. The nurse is caring for a patient after coronary artery bypass graft
(CABG). Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Chest tube drainage of 50 mL/hr for 2 hours
B. Temperature 99.8°F
C. Incisional pain 4/10
D. Heart rate 90 beats/min
Answer: A
Rationale: Chest tube drainage >100 mL/hr or persistent bleeding may
indicate hemorrhage/tamponade. 50 mL/hr for 2 hours is excessive and
needs notification.
5. A patient with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) asks why walking
causes leg pain. The nurse explains:
A. "Blood flow to your legs is reduced, causing ischemia during exercise."
B. "You have a blood clot in your leg."
C. "Your veins are inflamed."
D. "You need more potassium."
Answer: A
Rationale: PAD causes arterial narrowing; exercise increases oxygen
demand, leading to intermittent claudication.
, Page 3 of 34
6. Which medication is a first-line treatment for hypertension in a patient
with asthma?
A. Propranolol
B. Metoprolol
C. Diltiazem
D. Lisinopril
Answer: C
Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that does not cause
bronchospasm. Beta-blockers (propranolol, metoprolol) can worsen
asthma. ACE inhibitors are also safe but diltiazem is preferred if beta-
blockers are contraindicated.
7. A patient on heparin has a PTT of 95 seconds. The therapeutic range is
1.5–2.5 times control. The control is 30 seconds. What is the priority
action?
A. Continue the infusion
B. Stop the infusion and prepare protamine sulfate
C. Increase the infusion rate
D. Administer vitamin K
Answer: B
Rationale: Therapeutic PTT is 45–75 seconds (1.5–2.5 × 30). A PTT of 95 is
elevated, indicating increased bleeding risk. Stop heparin and give
protamine sulfate if needed.
8. A patient with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) reports sudden
severe back pain. The nurse should:
A. Administer pain medication and reassess in 1 hour
B. Prepare for immediate surgery
C. Encourage ambulation
D. Apply heat to the back
Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden severe back pain in AAA may indicate rupture, a
surgical emergency.
, Page 4 of 34
9. Which finding indicates cardiogenic shock?
A. Warm, flushed skin
B. Urine output 40 mL/hr
C. Blood pressure 82/50 mm Hg, cool extremities
D. Heart rate 60 beats/min
Answer: C
Rationale: Cardiogenic shock causes pump failure, leading to
hypotension, cool extremities, and decreased urine output.
10. A patient is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which instruction
is most important?
A. "You may eat a light breakfast."
B. "Hold your metformin for 48 hours after the procedure."
C. "You will need to lie flat for 2–6 hours after the procedure."
D. "You can drive yourself home."
Answer: C
Rationale: After femoral access, the patient must lie flat to prevent
bleeding. Metformin may be held, but lying flat is a direct post-procedure
instruction.
11. A patient with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse
should monitor for:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic; it can cause
hyperkalemia.
12. Which ECG finding is characteristic of hypokalemia?
A. Peaked T waves
B. U waves
C. Widened QRS
D. ST elevation
