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NUR 231 EXAM 2 – ADULT NURSING II – ILLINOIS STATE
UNIVERSITY 2026/2027 COMPLETE CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
NURSING
Prepare for NUR 231 Exam 2 with this focused Adult Nursing II study resource from
Illinois State University. It is designed to reinforce important adult nursing concepts,
clinical judgment, patient care principles, and medical-surgical topics. Use it to
review key material, strengthen your understanding, and identify areas that may need
additional study. This resource provides a structured supplement to your coursework
and can help you approach the exam with greater confidence.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
Module 1: Cancer Management (Questions 1–50)
1. A nurse is teaching a patient about primary prevention of cancer. Which
action should the nurse include?
A. Scheduling annual mammograms
B. Receiving the HPV vaccine
C. Undergoing colonoscopy screening
D. Attending a support group for cancer survivors
Answer: B
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent cancer from developing.
The HPV vaccine prevents infection with the human papillomavirus,
which is a known cause of cervical and other cancers. Mammograms and
colonoscopies are secondary prevention (screening), and support groups
are tertiary prevention.
2. A patient asks the nurse about the difference between benign and
malignant tumors. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A. "Benign tumors spread to other organs."
B. "Malignant tumors are encapsulated and slow-growing."
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C. "Malignant tumors can invade surrounding tissues and metastasize."
D. "Benign tumors always require chemotherapy."
Answer: C
Rationale: Malignant tumors are characterized by invasion of surrounding
tissues and the ability to metastasize to distant sites. Benign tumors are
typically encapsulated, slow-growing, and do not metastasize. Benign
tumors generally do not require chemotherapy.
3. A nurse is reviewing the TNM classification system for a patient with
cancer. What does the "N" represent?
A. Size of the tumor
B. Presence of metastasis
C. Lymph node involvement
D. Grade of the tumor
Answer: C
Rationale: In the TNM classification, T stands for the size and extent of the
primary tumor, N stands for regional lymph node involvement, and M
stands for the presence of distant metastasis.
4. A patient is scheduled for an excisional biopsy. Which statement best
describes this procedure?
A. A small sample of tissue is taken with a needle.
B. A portion of a large tumor is removed.
C. The entire tumor is removed.
D. A sample is taken from the lymph nodes.
Answer: C
Rationale: An excisional biopsy involves the removal of the entire tumor.
An incisional biopsy removes a small piece of a larger mass, and a needle
biopsy uses a needle to obtain a small sample.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient receiving external beam radiation therapy.
Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include?
A. "You can wash the marked area with soap and water."
B. "Avoid using lotions or powders on the treatment area."
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C. "Apply ice packs to the area after each treatment."
D. "You may remove the markings once treatment begins."
Answer: B
Rationale: During external beam radiation therapy, patients should avoid
lotions, powders, and creams on the treatment area unless approved by
the radiation oncologist. The markings should not be removed until
treatment is complete. Gentle washing with mild soap and water is
permitted.
6. A patient is receiving internal radiation therapy (brachytherapy) with
implanted seeds. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Allowing the patient to ambulate freely in the hallway
B. Maintaining the patient on bedrest with limited movement
C. Sitting at the bedside for extended periods
D. Encouraging frequent visitors, including children
Answer: B
Rationale: Patients receiving internal radiation therapy with implanted
seeds are typically on bedrest with limited movement to prevent
dislodgement of the seeds. Visitors should be limited, and pregnant
women and children should not visit. Nurses should minimize time spent
in close proximity.
7. A patient undergoing chemotherapy has a white blood cell count of
1,800/mm³. Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Encourage the patient to eat fresh fruits and vegetables
B. Implement neutropenic precautions
C. Administer a colony-stimulating factor
D. Encourage the patient to ambulate in the hallway
Answer: B
Rationale: A WBC count of 1,800/mm³ indicates neutropenia (normal
range 5,000–10,000/mm³). Neutropenic precautions, including hand
hygiene, avoiding fresh flowers and raw foods, and restricting visitors with
infections, are the priority to prevent infection. Colony-stimulating factors
may be administered, but precautions are the immediate nursing priority.
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8. A patient receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea and vomiting.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first?
A. Ondansetron
B. Metoclopramide
C. Prochlorperazine
D. Promethazine
Answer: A
Rationale: Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist that is highly
effective for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV). It is
considered first-line therapy. Metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, and
promethazine are alternative agents but are not as effective for CINV.
9. A nurse is assessing a patient receiving doxorubicin. Which adverse
effect requires immediate monitoring?
A. Alopecia
B. Cardiotoxicity
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Mucositis
Answer: B
Rationale: Doxorubicin is an anthracycline chemotherapy agent that can
cause dose-dependent cardiotoxicity, leading to cardiomyopathy and
heart failure. Cardiac function should be monitored with
echocardiography or MUGA scans. Alopecia, nausea, and mucositis are
common but less immediately life-threatening.
10. A patient with cancer is experiencing tumor lysis syndrome. Which
laboratory finding would the nurse expect?
A. Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperuricemia
B. Hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypouricemia
C. Hypernatremia and hypercalcemia
D. Hyponatremia and hypocalcemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Tumor lysis syndrome occurs when large numbers of cancer
cells are destroyed rapidly, releasing intracellular contents into the
bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and
NUR 231 EXAM 2 – ADULT NURSING II – ILLINOIS STATE
UNIVERSITY 2026/2027 COMPLETE CURRENT TESTING
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES.
NURSING
Prepare for NUR 231 Exam 2 with this focused Adult Nursing II study resource from
Illinois State University. It is designed to reinforce important adult nursing concepts,
clinical judgment, patient care principles, and medical-surgical topics. Use it to
review key material, strengthen your understanding, and identify areas that may need
additional study. This resource provides a structured supplement to your coursework
and can help you approach the exam with greater confidence.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
Module 1: Cancer Management (Questions 1–50)
1. A nurse is teaching a patient about primary prevention of cancer. Which
action should the nurse include?
A. Scheduling annual mammograms
B. Receiving the HPV vaccine
C. Undergoing colonoscopy screening
D. Attending a support group for cancer survivors
Answer: B
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent cancer from developing.
The HPV vaccine prevents infection with the human papillomavirus,
which is a known cause of cervical and other cancers. Mammograms and
colonoscopies are secondary prevention (screening), and support groups
are tertiary prevention.
2. A patient asks the nurse about the difference between benign and
malignant tumors. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
A. "Benign tumors spread to other organs."
B. "Malignant tumors are encapsulated and slow-growing."
, Page 2 of 42
C. "Malignant tumors can invade surrounding tissues and metastasize."
D. "Benign tumors always require chemotherapy."
Answer: C
Rationale: Malignant tumors are characterized by invasion of surrounding
tissues and the ability to metastasize to distant sites. Benign tumors are
typically encapsulated, slow-growing, and do not metastasize. Benign
tumors generally do not require chemotherapy.
3. A nurse is reviewing the TNM classification system for a patient with
cancer. What does the "N" represent?
A. Size of the tumor
B. Presence of metastasis
C. Lymph node involvement
D. Grade of the tumor
Answer: C
Rationale: In the TNM classification, T stands for the size and extent of the
primary tumor, N stands for regional lymph node involvement, and M
stands for the presence of distant metastasis.
4. A patient is scheduled for an excisional biopsy. Which statement best
describes this procedure?
A. A small sample of tissue is taken with a needle.
B. A portion of a large tumor is removed.
C. The entire tumor is removed.
D. A sample is taken from the lymph nodes.
Answer: C
Rationale: An excisional biopsy involves the removal of the entire tumor.
An incisional biopsy removes a small piece of a larger mass, and a needle
biopsy uses a needle to obtain a small sample.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient receiving external beam radiation therapy.
Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include?
A. "You can wash the marked area with soap and water."
B. "Avoid using lotions or powders on the treatment area."
, Page 3 of 42
C. "Apply ice packs to the area after each treatment."
D. "You may remove the markings once treatment begins."
Answer: B
Rationale: During external beam radiation therapy, patients should avoid
lotions, powders, and creams on the treatment area unless approved by
the radiation oncologist. The markings should not be removed until
treatment is complete. Gentle washing with mild soap and water is
permitted.
6. A patient is receiving internal radiation therapy (brachytherapy) with
implanted seeds. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Allowing the patient to ambulate freely in the hallway
B. Maintaining the patient on bedrest with limited movement
C. Sitting at the bedside for extended periods
D. Encouraging frequent visitors, including children
Answer: B
Rationale: Patients receiving internal radiation therapy with implanted
seeds are typically on bedrest with limited movement to prevent
dislodgement of the seeds. Visitors should be limited, and pregnant
women and children should not visit. Nurses should minimize time spent
in close proximity.
7. A patient undergoing chemotherapy has a white blood cell count of
1,800/mm³. Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Encourage the patient to eat fresh fruits and vegetables
B. Implement neutropenic precautions
C. Administer a colony-stimulating factor
D. Encourage the patient to ambulate in the hallway
Answer: B
Rationale: A WBC count of 1,800/mm³ indicates neutropenia (normal
range 5,000–10,000/mm³). Neutropenic precautions, including hand
hygiene, avoiding fresh flowers and raw foods, and restricting visitors with
infections, are the priority to prevent infection. Colony-stimulating factors
may be administered, but precautions are the immediate nursing priority.
, Page 4 of 42
8. A patient receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea and vomiting.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first?
A. Ondansetron
B. Metoclopramide
C. Prochlorperazine
D. Promethazine
Answer: A
Rationale: Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist that is highly
effective for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV). It is
considered first-line therapy. Metoclopramide, prochlorperazine, and
promethazine are alternative agents but are not as effective for CINV.
9. A nurse is assessing a patient receiving doxorubicin. Which adverse
effect requires immediate monitoring?
A. Alopecia
B. Cardiotoxicity
C. Nausea and vomiting
D. Mucositis
Answer: B
Rationale: Doxorubicin is an anthracycline chemotherapy agent that can
cause dose-dependent cardiotoxicity, leading to cardiomyopathy and
heart failure. Cardiac function should be monitored with
echocardiography or MUGA scans. Alopecia, nausea, and mucositis are
common but less immediately life-threatening.
10. A patient with cancer is experiencing tumor lysis syndrome. Which
laboratory finding would the nurse expect?
A. Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperuricemia
B. Hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypouricemia
C. Hypernatremia and hypercalcemia
D. Hyponatremia and hypocalcemia
Answer: A
Rationale: Tumor lysis syndrome occurs when large numbers of cancer
cells are destroyed rapidly, releasing intracellular contents into the
bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and
