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NU 673 MIDTERM EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE CURRENT
TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES.
NU
Prepare for the NU 673 Midterm Exam with this focused study resource designed to
reinforce essential course concepts and key nursing material. Use it to review
important topics, strengthen your understanding, and identify areas that may require
additional study. This resource provides a structured supplement to your coursework
and can help improve exam readiness. It is a convenient tool for organizing your
preparation and approaching the NU 673 Midterm with greater confidence.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
SECTION 1: ADVANCED PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT & DIAGNOSIS
(Questions 1–30)
1. A PMHNP is conducting a mental status examination. Which
component assesses the patient’s ability to recognize and interpret
sensory stimuli?
A. Orientation
B. Gnosis
C. Praxis
D. Abstraction
Answer: B
Rationale: Gnosis refers to the ability to recognize and interpret sensory
stimuli. Agnosia is the inability to recognize objects despite intact
sensory function. Orientation assesses time, place, and person; praxis
refers to purposeful movement; abstraction involves interpreting
proverbs or similarities.
2. Which screening tool is specifically designed to assess suicide risk
using a structured, evidence-based framework?
A. PHQ-9
B. GAD-7
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C. SAFE-T
D. MMSE
Answer: C
Rationale: The SAFE-T (Suicide Assessment Five-step Evaluation and
Triage) is a structured, evidence-based suicide risk assessment tool.
PHQ-9 screens for depression, GAD-7 for anxiety, and MMSE for cognitive
impairment.
3. A patient reports hearing voices that others do not hear. This is best
documented as:
A. Illusion
B. Hallucination
C. Delusion
D. Depersonalization
Answer: B
Rationale: A hallucination is a false sensory perception without an
external stimulus. An illusion is a misinterpretation of a real external
stimulus. A delusion is a fixed false belief. Depersonalization is a feeling
of detachment from oneself.
4. During a mental status exam, the patient jumps from one topic to
another with no logical connection. This is called:
A. Flight of ideas
B. Circumstantiality
C. Tangentiality
D. Loose associations
Answer: D
Rationale: Loose associations (derailment) involve speech that shifts
between unrelated topics with no logical connection. Flight of ideas is
rapid, pressured speech with loose connections often seen in mania.
Circumstantiality and tangentiality involve over-inclusion of irrelevant
detail.
5. Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of a patient’s
judgment?
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A. The patient’s stated plans for the future
B. The patient’s performance on a hypothetical dilemma
C. The patient’s actual behavior in past situations
D. The patient’s score on a cognitive screening test
Answer: C
Rationale: Judgment is best assessed by examining the patient’s actual
behavior in real-life situations, not just hypothetical responses. Stated
plans and hypothetical performance may not reflect real-world decision-
making.
6. A PMHNP is assessing a patient with suspected bipolar disorder. Which
feature distinguishes a manic episode from a hypomanic episode?
A. Elevated mood
B. Increased goal-directed activity
C. Marked impairment in social or occupational functioning
D. Decreased need for sleep
Answer: C
Rationale: Mania causes marked impairment in social or occupational
functioning or requires hospitalization, whereas hypomania does not.
Both share elevated mood, increased activity, and decreased need for
sleep.
7. Which of the following is a core feature of post-traumatic stress
disorder (PTSD) according to DSM-5-TR?
A. Persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma
B. Grandiosity
C. Anhedonia lasting at least 2 weeks
D. Compulsive rituals
Answer: A
Rationale: PTSD criteria include intrusion symptoms, persistent
avoidance, negative alterations in cognitions/mood, and alterations in
arousal/reactivity. Grandiosity is seen in mania; anhedonia in depression;
compulsions in OCD.
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8. A patient presents with a fixed false belief that they are being poisoned
by neighbors. This is:
A. Somatic delusion
B. Persecutory delusion
C. Grandiose delusion
D. Referential delusion
Answer: B
Rationale: A persecutory delusion involves the belief that one is being
harmed, harassed, or poisoned by others. Somatic delusions involve
bodily functions; grandiose delusions involve inflated self-worth;
referential delusions involve beliefs that external events refer to oneself.
9. The MSE component that assesses the patient’s awareness of their
illness is called:
A. Insight
B. Judgment
C. Mood
D. Affect
Answer: A
Rationale: Insight refers to the patient’s understanding of their illness and
need for treatment. Judgment is about decision-making; mood is the
sustained emotional state; affect is the observed expression of emotion.
10. Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
A. Avolition
B. Alogia
C. Hallucinations
D. Anhedonia
Answer: C
Rationale: Positive symptoms include hallucinations, delusions,
disorganized speech, and grossly disorganized behavior. Negative
symptoms include avolition, alogia, anhedonia, and affective flattening.
11. A PMHNP is evaluating a patient for major depressive disorder. Which
symptom must be present for at least 2 weeks?
NU 673 MIDTERM EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE CURRENT
TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES.
NU
Prepare for the NU 673 Midterm Exam with this focused study resource designed to
reinforce essential course concepts and key nursing material. Use it to review
important topics, strengthen your understanding, and identify areas that may require
additional study. This resource provides a structured supplement to your coursework
and can help improve exam readiness. It is a convenient tool for organizing your
preparation and approaching the NU 673 Midterm with greater confidence.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
SECTION 1: ADVANCED PSYCHIATRIC ASSESSMENT & DIAGNOSIS
(Questions 1–30)
1. A PMHNP is conducting a mental status examination. Which
component assesses the patient’s ability to recognize and interpret
sensory stimuli?
A. Orientation
B. Gnosis
C. Praxis
D. Abstraction
Answer: B
Rationale: Gnosis refers to the ability to recognize and interpret sensory
stimuli. Agnosia is the inability to recognize objects despite intact
sensory function. Orientation assesses time, place, and person; praxis
refers to purposeful movement; abstraction involves interpreting
proverbs or similarities.
2. Which screening tool is specifically designed to assess suicide risk
using a structured, evidence-based framework?
A. PHQ-9
B. GAD-7
, Page 2 of 39
C. SAFE-T
D. MMSE
Answer: C
Rationale: The SAFE-T (Suicide Assessment Five-step Evaluation and
Triage) is a structured, evidence-based suicide risk assessment tool.
PHQ-9 screens for depression, GAD-7 for anxiety, and MMSE for cognitive
impairment.
3. A patient reports hearing voices that others do not hear. This is best
documented as:
A. Illusion
B. Hallucination
C. Delusion
D. Depersonalization
Answer: B
Rationale: A hallucination is a false sensory perception without an
external stimulus. An illusion is a misinterpretation of a real external
stimulus. A delusion is a fixed false belief. Depersonalization is a feeling
of detachment from oneself.
4. During a mental status exam, the patient jumps from one topic to
another with no logical connection. This is called:
A. Flight of ideas
B. Circumstantiality
C. Tangentiality
D. Loose associations
Answer: D
Rationale: Loose associations (derailment) involve speech that shifts
between unrelated topics with no logical connection. Flight of ideas is
rapid, pressured speech with loose connections often seen in mania.
Circumstantiality and tangentiality involve over-inclusion of irrelevant
detail.
5. Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of a patient’s
judgment?
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A. The patient’s stated plans for the future
B. The patient’s performance on a hypothetical dilemma
C. The patient’s actual behavior in past situations
D. The patient’s score on a cognitive screening test
Answer: C
Rationale: Judgment is best assessed by examining the patient’s actual
behavior in real-life situations, not just hypothetical responses. Stated
plans and hypothetical performance may not reflect real-world decision-
making.
6. A PMHNP is assessing a patient with suspected bipolar disorder. Which
feature distinguishes a manic episode from a hypomanic episode?
A. Elevated mood
B. Increased goal-directed activity
C. Marked impairment in social or occupational functioning
D. Decreased need for sleep
Answer: C
Rationale: Mania causes marked impairment in social or occupational
functioning or requires hospitalization, whereas hypomania does not.
Both share elevated mood, increased activity, and decreased need for
sleep.
7. Which of the following is a core feature of post-traumatic stress
disorder (PTSD) according to DSM-5-TR?
A. Persistent avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma
B. Grandiosity
C. Anhedonia lasting at least 2 weeks
D. Compulsive rituals
Answer: A
Rationale: PTSD criteria include intrusion symptoms, persistent
avoidance, negative alterations in cognitions/mood, and alterations in
arousal/reactivity. Grandiosity is seen in mania; anhedonia in depression;
compulsions in OCD.
, Page 4 of 39
8. A patient presents with a fixed false belief that they are being poisoned
by neighbors. This is:
A. Somatic delusion
B. Persecutory delusion
C. Grandiose delusion
D. Referential delusion
Answer: B
Rationale: A persecutory delusion involves the belief that one is being
harmed, harassed, or poisoned by others. Somatic delusions involve
bodily functions; grandiose delusions involve inflated self-worth;
referential delusions involve beliefs that external events refer to oneself.
9. The MSE component that assesses the patient’s awareness of their
illness is called:
A. Insight
B. Judgment
C. Mood
D. Affect
Answer: A
Rationale: Insight refers to the patient’s understanding of their illness and
need for treatment. Judgment is about decision-making; mood is the
sustained emotional state; affect is the observed expression of emotion.
10. Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
A. Avolition
B. Alogia
C. Hallucinations
D. Anhedonia
Answer: C
Rationale: Positive symptoms include hallucinations, delusions,
disorganized speech, and grossly disorganized behavior. Negative
symptoms include avolition, alogia, anhedonia, and affective flattening.
11. A PMHNP is evaluating a patient for major depressive disorder. Which
symptom must be present for at least 2 weeks?
