Page 1 of 35
NU 673 FINAL EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE CURRENT
TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES.
NU
Prepare for the NU 673 Midterm Exam with this focused study resource designed to
reinforce essential course concepts and key nursing material. Use it to review
important topics, strengthen your understanding, and identify areas that may require
additional study. This resource provides a structured supplement to your coursework
and can help improve exam readiness. It is a convenient tool for organizing your
preparation and approaching the NU 673 Midterm with greater confidence.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
SECTION 1: ADVANCED PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY (Questions 1–15)
1. Which SSRI is most associated with QT prolongation?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Sertraline
C. Citalopram
D. Paroxetine
Answer: C
Rationale: Citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT
prolongation. The FDA recommends a maximum dose of 40 mg/day in
adults and 20 mg/day in patients older than 60 years.
2. Bupropion is contraindicated in a patient with which condition?
A. Hypertension
B. Seizure disorder
C. Obesity
D. Smoking cessation
Answer: B
Rationale: Bupropion lowers the seizure threshold and is contraindicated
in patients with a seizure disorder, current or prior anorexia/bulimia, or
abrupt alcohol/benzodiazepine withdrawal.
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3. Which laboratory value must be monitored regularly for a patient taking
clozapine?
A. Platelet count
B. Absolute neutrophil count
C. INR
D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Answer: B
Rationale: Clozapine can cause severe neutropenia/agranulocytosis.
Absolute neutrophil count must be monitored weekly for the first 6
months, then every 2 weeks for 6 months, then monthly.
4. Which is an early sign of lithium toxicity?
A. Coarse tremor
B. Hair loss
C. Weight gain
D. Acne
Answer: A
Rationale: Early lithium toxicity often presents with coarse tremor,
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and ataxia. Fine tremor can be a therapeutic
side effect, but coarse tremor suggests toxicity.
5. Lamotrigine carries a black box warning for which serious adverse
effect?
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C. Thyroid dysfunction
D. Renal failure
Answer: B
Rationale: Lamotrigine can cause serious rash, including Stevens-
Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. Risk increases with
rapid titration and concurrent valproate use.
6. Which laboratory tests should be monitored in a patient taking
valproate?
A. Liver function tests and CBC
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B. INR only
C. Thyroid function only
D. Urinalysis only
Answer: A
Rationale: Valproate can cause hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, and
pancytopenia. Liver function tests and CBC should be monitored
regularly.
7. Which medication is commonly used to treat antipsychotic-induced
akathisia?
A. Benztropine
B. Propranolol
C. Haloperidol
D. Lithium
Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers such as propranolol are first-line for akathisia.
Benztropine may help but is less effective for akathisia than for dystonia
or parkinsonism.
8. Which medication is used to treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
A. Benztropine
B. Dantrolene
C. Lorazepam
D. Naloxone
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS treatment includes immediate discontinuation of the
antipsychotic, supportive care, dantrolene, and/or bromocriptine.
Dantrolene reduces muscle rigidity and hyperthermia.
9. Serotonin syndrome is most commonly caused by which combination?
A. SSRI plus MAOI
B. Lithium plus NSAID
C. Haloperidol plus lithium
D. Benzodiazepine plus alcohol
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Answer: A
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome results from excessive serotonergic
activity. The combination of an SSRI and an MAOI is a classic cause.
Symptoms include clonus, hyperreflexia, agitation, and hyperthermia.
10. Which is a common anticholinergic side effect of antipsychotic
medications?
A. Diarrhea
B. Dry mouth
C. Bradycardia
D. Miosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, constipation,
urinary retention, blurred vision, and tachycardia. Diarrhea and
bradycardia are not typical anticholinergic effects.
11. Which antipsychotic has the highest risk of metabolic syndrome?
A. Haloperidol
B. Olanzapine
C. Ziprasidone
D. Aripiprazole
Answer: B
Rationale: Olanzapine is associated with significant weight gain,
hyperglycemia, and dyslipidemia. Clozapine also has high metabolic risk.
Aripiprazole and ziprasidone are more weight-neutral.
12. Long-acting injectable antipsychotics are most indicated for which
situation?
A. Mild anxiety
B. Medication nonadherence
C. Insomnia
D. Headache
Answer: B
Rationale: Long-acting injectables improve adherence in patients with
NU 673 FINAL EXAM 2026/2027 COMPLETE CURRENT
TESTING QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS WITH
DETAILED RATIONALES.
NU
Prepare for the NU 673 Midterm Exam with this focused study resource designed to
reinforce essential course concepts and key nursing material. Use it to review
important topics, strengthen your understanding, and identify areas that may require
additional study. This resource provides a structured supplement to your coursework
and can help improve exam readiness. It is a convenient tool for organizing your
preparation and approaching the NU 673 Midterm with greater confidence.
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
SECTION 1: ADVANCED PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY (Questions 1–15)
1. Which SSRI is most associated with QT prolongation?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Sertraline
C. Citalopram
D. Paroxetine
Answer: C
Rationale: Citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT
prolongation. The FDA recommends a maximum dose of 40 mg/day in
adults and 20 mg/day in patients older than 60 years.
2. Bupropion is contraindicated in a patient with which condition?
A. Hypertension
B. Seizure disorder
C. Obesity
D. Smoking cessation
Answer: B
Rationale: Bupropion lowers the seizure threshold and is contraindicated
in patients with a seizure disorder, current or prior anorexia/bulimia, or
abrupt alcohol/benzodiazepine withdrawal.
, Page 2 of 35
3. Which laboratory value must be monitored regularly for a patient taking
clozapine?
A. Platelet count
B. Absolute neutrophil count
C. INR
D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Answer: B
Rationale: Clozapine can cause severe neutropenia/agranulocytosis.
Absolute neutrophil count must be monitored weekly for the first 6
months, then every 2 weeks for 6 months, then monthly.
4. Which is an early sign of lithium toxicity?
A. Coarse tremor
B. Hair loss
C. Weight gain
D. Acne
Answer: A
Rationale: Early lithium toxicity often presents with coarse tremor,
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and ataxia. Fine tremor can be a therapeutic
side effect, but coarse tremor suggests toxicity.
5. Lamotrigine carries a black box warning for which serious adverse
effect?
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
C. Thyroid dysfunction
D. Renal failure
Answer: B
Rationale: Lamotrigine can cause serious rash, including Stevens-
Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. Risk increases with
rapid titration and concurrent valproate use.
6. Which laboratory tests should be monitored in a patient taking
valproate?
A. Liver function tests and CBC
, Page 3 of 35
B. INR only
C. Thyroid function only
D. Urinalysis only
Answer: A
Rationale: Valproate can cause hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, and
pancytopenia. Liver function tests and CBC should be monitored
regularly.
7. Which medication is commonly used to treat antipsychotic-induced
akathisia?
A. Benztropine
B. Propranolol
C. Haloperidol
D. Lithium
Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-blockers such as propranolol are first-line for akathisia.
Benztropine may help but is less effective for akathisia than for dystonia
or parkinsonism.
8. Which medication is used to treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
A. Benztropine
B. Dantrolene
C. Lorazepam
D. Naloxone
Answer: B
Rationale: NMS treatment includes immediate discontinuation of the
antipsychotic, supportive care, dantrolene, and/or bromocriptine.
Dantrolene reduces muscle rigidity and hyperthermia.
9. Serotonin syndrome is most commonly caused by which combination?
A. SSRI plus MAOI
B. Lithium plus NSAID
C. Haloperidol plus lithium
D. Benzodiazepine plus alcohol
, Page 4 of 35
Answer: A
Rationale: Serotonin syndrome results from excessive serotonergic
activity. The combination of an SSRI and an MAOI is a classic cause.
Symptoms include clonus, hyperreflexia, agitation, and hyperthermia.
10. Which is a common anticholinergic side effect of antipsychotic
medications?
A. Diarrhea
B. Dry mouth
C. Bradycardia
D. Miosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, constipation,
urinary retention, blurred vision, and tachycardia. Diarrhea and
bradycardia are not typical anticholinergic effects.
11. Which antipsychotic has the highest risk of metabolic syndrome?
A. Haloperidol
B. Olanzapine
C. Ziprasidone
D. Aripiprazole
Answer: B
Rationale: Olanzapine is associated with significant weight gain,
hyperglycemia, and dyslipidemia. Clozapine also has high metabolic risk.
Aripiprazole and ziprasidone are more weight-neutral.
12. Long-acting injectable antipsychotics are most indicated for which
situation?
A. Mild anxiety
B. Medication nonadherence
C. Insomnia
D. Headache
Answer: B
Rationale: Long-acting injectables improve adherence in patients with
