NSG 552
Exam 1 Wilkes
Psychopharmacology
Questions & Answers Plus
Rationales 2026 (PDF)
Instant Pdf Download
UPLOADED BY:
ACADEMICS EXCELENCE
,SECTION 1: PHARMACOKINETICS & PHARMACODYNAMICS
(Questions 1-20)
Question 1
Which term describes the study of what the body does to a drug,
including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion?
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Bioavailability
D. Pharmacogenomics
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics (PK) is the movement of the drug
through the body, encompassing ADME. Pharmacodynamics
describes what the drug does to the body. Bioavailability refers to
the fraction of drug that reaches systemic circulation.
Pharmacogenomics studies genetic influences on drug response .
Question 2
What does pharmacodynamics describe?
A. Drug absorption and distribution
B. The biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and their
mechanisms of action
C. Drug metabolism and excretion
D. Genetic variations in drug response
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics examines drug-receptor
interactions, dose-response relationships, and therapeutic versus
,adverse effects. This knowledge guides medication selection
based on desired clinical outcomes. Pharmacokinetics covers
ADME processes .
Question 3
Which of the following best defines receptor affinity?
A. The maximum effect a drug can produce
B. The extent or fraction to which a drug binds to receptors at any
given drug concentration
C. The amount of drug needed to produce an effect
D. The rate at which a drug is eliminated
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Affinity is the "preference" or likelihood of a drug to
bind to a specific receptor. Higher affinity drugs can produce
effects at lower concentrations. Efficacy is the maximum effect
achievable, while potency is the amount needed for an effect .
Question 4
Which process occurs with chronic exposure to an agonist drug?
A. Upregulation
B. Downregulation
C. No change in receptor number
D. Increased receptor sensitivity
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Chronic agonist exposure causes downregulation—
decreased receptor number, internalization, and decreased
sensitivity. This explains tolerance development and diminished
drug response over time. Upregulation occurs with chronic
antagonist use .
Question 5
A patient taking a medication that is a CYP450 3A4 inhibitor
starts a second drug metabolized by 3A4. The levels of the second
drug will:
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Stay the same
D. Be eliminated immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Inhibitors "block" the metabolic pathway, causing
substrate drugs to back up and reach potentially toxic levels. This
is a critical drug-drug interaction concept in
psychopharmacology. Inducers have the opposite effect,
decreasing substrate drug levels .
Question 6
Which cytochrome P450 enzyme is responsible for the
metabolism of approximately 25% of all psychiatric medications?
Exam 1 Wilkes
Psychopharmacology
Questions & Answers Plus
Rationales 2026 (PDF)
Instant Pdf Download
UPLOADED BY:
ACADEMICS EXCELENCE
,SECTION 1: PHARMACOKINETICS & PHARMACODYNAMICS
(Questions 1-20)
Question 1
Which term describes the study of what the body does to a drug,
including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion?
A. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics
C. Bioavailability
D. Pharmacogenomics
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics (PK) is the movement of the drug
through the body, encompassing ADME. Pharmacodynamics
describes what the drug does to the body. Bioavailability refers to
the fraction of drug that reaches systemic circulation.
Pharmacogenomics studies genetic influences on drug response .
Question 2
What does pharmacodynamics describe?
A. Drug absorption and distribution
B. The biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and their
mechanisms of action
C. Drug metabolism and excretion
D. Genetic variations in drug response
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics examines drug-receptor
interactions, dose-response relationships, and therapeutic versus
,adverse effects. This knowledge guides medication selection
based on desired clinical outcomes. Pharmacokinetics covers
ADME processes .
Question 3
Which of the following best defines receptor affinity?
A. The maximum effect a drug can produce
B. The extent or fraction to which a drug binds to receptors at any
given drug concentration
C. The amount of drug needed to produce an effect
D. The rate at which a drug is eliminated
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Affinity is the "preference" or likelihood of a drug to
bind to a specific receptor. Higher affinity drugs can produce
effects at lower concentrations. Efficacy is the maximum effect
achievable, while potency is the amount needed for an effect .
Question 4
Which process occurs with chronic exposure to an agonist drug?
A. Upregulation
B. Downregulation
C. No change in receptor number
D. Increased receptor sensitivity
Correct Answer: B
, Rationale: Chronic agonist exposure causes downregulation—
decreased receptor number, internalization, and decreased
sensitivity. This explains tolerance development and diminished
drug response over time. Upregulation occurs with chronic
antagonist use .
Question 5
A patient taking a medication that is a CYP450 3A4 inhibitor
starts a second drug metabolized by 3A4. The levels of the second
drug will:
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Stay the same
D. Be eliminated immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Inhibitors "block" the metabolic pathway, causing
substrate drugs to back up and reach potentially toxic levels. This
is a critical drug-drug interaction concept in
psychopharmacology. Inducers have the opposite effect,
decreasing substrate drug levels .
Question 6
Which cytochrome P450 enzyme is responsible for the
metabolism of approximately 25% of all psychiatric medications?
