NUR 521 EXAM 1 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | NUR 521
STUDY GUIDE & PRACTICE TEST 2026/2027
What is the mechanism of action of Lidocaine? - correct answer ✔✔Blocks sodium channels to prevent
pain signal transmission
What are the common adverse effects of Lidocaine? - correct answer ✔✔Redness, swelling, and pain at
the application site
What are the serious adverse effects of Lidocaine? - correct answer ✔✔Systemic toxicity, seizures,
cardiac arrest
How is Lidocaine administered? - correct answer ✔✔Topical application, injection
What are the contraindications of Lidocaine? - correct answer ✔✔Hypersensitivity to amide-type local
anesthetics, severe heart block
What patient education should be provided for Lidocaine use? - correct answer ✔✔Instruct on proper
application, avoid excessive use, and monitor for signs of systemic toxicity
Full Prescriptive Authority for APRNs - correct answer ✔✔Advanced Practice Registered Nurses (APRNs)
should have full prescriptive authority to improve access to care, enhance patient outcomes, and reduce
healthcare costs.
Schedule I - correct answer ✔✔Drugs with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse (e.g.,
heroin).
Schedule II - correct answer ✔✔Drugs with a high potential for abuse, potentially leading to severe
psychological or physical dependence (e.g., oxycodone).
Schedule III - correct answer ✔✔Drugs with a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological
dependence (e.g., anabolic steroids).
Schedule IV - correct answer ✔✔Drugs with a low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence (e.g.,
diazepam).
Schedule V - correct answer ✔✔Drugs with lower potential for abuse than Schedule IV and consist of
preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics (e.g., cough preparations with less than
200 milligrams of codeine per 100 milliliters).
Necessary Components for Prescription - correct answer ✔✔A prescription must include the patient's
name, date, medication name, dosage, route, frequency, and the prescriber's signature.
Factors to Consider in Medication Prescription - correct answer ✔✔APRNs should consider the patient's
age, weight, renal and hepatic function, potential drug interactions, allergies, and patient adherence.
,Factors for Medication Refills - correct answer ✔✔APRNs should assess the patient's response to the
medication, adherence to the prescribed regimen, and any side effects experienced.
Collaboration Benefits in Drug Selection - correct answer ✔✔Collaboration with other healthcare
providers can enhance patient care by incorporating diverse expertise and perspectives.
Patient Education Material - correct answer ✔✔Should include the medication's purpose, dosage,
administration instructions, potential side effects, interactions, and what to do in case of a missed dose.
Importance of Patient Education - correct answer ✔✔Educated patients are more likely to adhere to
their medication regimen, recognize and report side effects, and make informed decisions about their
health.
Promoting Positive Outcomes - correct answer ✔✔Regular monitoring, patient education, and follow-up
appointments are crucial for promoting positive outcomes with drug therapy.
Monitoring Drug Therapy - correct answer ✔✔Monitoring helps to ensure the medication is effective,
identify any adverse effects early, and make necessary adjustments to the treatment plan.
Reasons for Non-Adherence - correct answer ✔✔Common reasons include cost, side effects,
misunderstanding instructions, and forgetfulness.
Absorption - correct answer ✔✔The process by which a drug enters the bloodstream from its site of
administration.
Distribution - correct answer ✔✔The dispersion of a drug throughout the body fluids and tissues.
Metabolism - correct answer ✔✔The chemical alteration of a drug by the body, primarily in the liver.
Excretion - correct answer ✔✔The removal of the drug from the body, primarily through the kidneys.
Bioavailability - correct answer ✔✔The proportion of a drug that enters the circulation and is able to
have an active effect.
Different Absorption Rates - correct answer ✔✔Variations in drug formulation, excipients, and
manufacturing processes can lead to differences in the rate and extent of drug absorption.
P450 Enzymes - correct answer ✔✔Enzymes that can be induced or inhibited by drugs, affecting the
metabolism of other medications.
Agonist vs. Antagonist - correct answer ✔✔An agonist activates a receptor, while an antagonist blocks
the action of agonists at the receptor.
Minimizing ADRs - correct answer ✔✔Starting with the lowest effective dose, closely monitoring
patients, educating them about potential side effects, and adjusting therapy as needed can help
minimize adverse drug reactions.
, Handling Side Effects - correct answer ✔✔Assess the severity of the side effect, consider adjusting the
dose or switching to an alternative medication, and provide reassurance and education about managing
side effects.
Contributing Factors to Medication Errors - correct answer ✔✔Poor communication, ambiguous
prescriptions, similar drug names, and lack of knowledge contribute to medication errors.
Contributing Factors - correct answer ✔✔Poor communication, ambiguous prescriptions, similar drug
names, and lack of knowledge.
Minimize risks - correct answer ✔✔By using electronic prescribing, double-checking orders, educating
staff, and implementing safety protocols.
Individual Variations - correct answer ✔✔Factors such as age, weight, genetics, organ function, and
concurrent medications that can influence drug responses.
Genetic Testing - correct answer ✔✔Identifies genetic variations affecting drug metabolism and
response, allowing for personalized therapy and improved treatment outcomes.
CYP2D6 gene variations - correct answer ✔✔Affect the metabolism of drugs like codeine and
antidepressants, requiring different dosages or alternative medications for certain genetic profiles.
Teratogenic Susceptibility - correct answer ✔✔Pregnant women are most susceptible during the first
trimester when organogenesis occurs.
Minimizing Drug Concentrations in Breast Milk - correct answer ✔✔Timing doses to avoid peak drug
levels during breastfeeding, choosing drugs with low milk penetration, and using the lowest effective
dose.
Organ Function in Older Adults - correct answer ✔✔Reduced renal and hepatic function can affect drug
metabolism and excretion, necessitating dose adjustments to prevent toxicity.
Calculating GFR - correct answer ✔✔The Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) estimation using formulas like
the Cockcroft-Gault equation, considering age, weight, serum creatinine, and gender.
Beers Criteria - correct answer ✔✔A list identifying potentially inappropriate medications for older
adults, aiming to improve medication safety and reduce adverse drug events.
Example of Beers Criteria Application - correct answer ✔✔Avoiding diphenhydramine in older adults due
to anticholinergic effects causing confusion, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention.
Parasympathetic Division - correct answer ✔✔Responsible for 'rest and digest' activities, slowing the
heart rate, increasing intestinal and gland activity, and relaxing sphincter muscles.
Sympathetic Division - correct answer ✔✔Responsible for 'fight or flight' responses, preparing the body
for stressful situations by increasing heart rate, dilating pupils, and inhibiting digestion.
STUDY GUIDE & PRACTICE TEST 2026/2027
What is the mechanism of action of Lidocaine? - correct answer ✔✔Blocks sodium channels to prevent
pain signal transmission
What are the common adverse effects of Lidocaine? - correct answer ✔✔Redness, swelling, and pain at
the application site
What are the serious adverse effects of Lidocaine? - correct answer ✔✔Systemic toxicity, seizures,
cardiac arrest
How is Lidocaine administered? - correct answer ✔✔Topical application, injection
What are the contraindications of Lidocaine? - correct answer ✔✔Hypersensitivity to amide-type local
anesthetics, severe heart block
What patient education should be provided for Lidocaine use? - correct answer ✔✔Instruct on proper
application, avoid excessive use, and monitor for signs of systemic toxicity
Full Prescriptive Authority for APRNs - correct answer ✔✔Advanced Practice Registered Nurses (APRNs)
should have full prescriptive authority to improve access to care, enhance patient outcomes, and reduce
healthcare costs.
Schedule I - correct answer ✔✔Drugs with no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse (e.g.,
heroin).
Schedule II - correct answer ✔✔Drugs with a high potential for abuse, potentially leading to severe
psychological or physical dependence (e.g., oxycodone).
Schedule III - correct answer ✔✔Drugs with a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological
dependence (e.g., anabolic steroids).
Schedule IV - correct answer ✔✔Drugs with a low potential for abuse and low risk of dependence (e.g.,
diazepam).
Schedule V - correct answer ✔✔Drugs with lower potential for abuse than Schedule IV and consist of
preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics (e.g., cough preparations with less than
200 milligrams of codeine per 100 milliliters).
Necessary Components for Prescription - correct answer ✔✔A prescription must include the patient's
name, date, medication name, dosage, route, frequency, and the prescriber's signature.
Factors to Consider in Medication Prescription - correct answer ✔✔APRNs should consider the patient's
age, weight, renal and hepatic function, potential drug interactions, allergies, and patient adherence.
,Factors for Medication Refills - correct answer ✔✔APRNs should assess the patient's response to the
medication, adherence to the prescribed regimen, and any side effects experienced.
Collaboration Benefits in Drug Selection - correct answer ✔✔Collaboration with other healthcare
providers can enhance patient care by incorporating diverse expertise and perspectives.
Patient Education Material - correct answer ✔✔Should include the medication's purpose, dosage,
administration instructions, potential side effects, interactions, and what to do in case of a missed dose.
Importance of Patient Education - correct answer ✔✔Educated patients are more likely to adhere to
their medication regimen, recognize and report side effects, and make informed decisions about their
health.
Promoting Positive Outcomes - correct answer ✔✔Regular monitoring, patient education, and follow-up
appointments are crucial for promoting positive outcomes with drug therapy.
Monitoring Drug Therapy - correct answer ✔✔Monitoring helps to ensure the medication is effective,
identify any adverse effects early, and make necessary adjustments to the treatment plan.
Reasons for Non-Adherence - correct answer ✔✔Common reasons include cost, side effects,
misunderstanding instructions, and forgetfulness.
Absorption - correct answer ✔✔The process by which a drug enters the bloodstream from its site of
administration.
Distribution - correct answer ✔✔The dispersion of a drug throughout the body fluids and tissues.
Metabolism - correct answer ✔✔The chemical alteration of a drug by the body, primarily in the liver.
Excretion - correct answer ✔✔The removal of the drug from the body, primarily through the kidneys.
Bioavailability - correct answer ✔✔The proportion of a drug that enters the circulation and is able to
have an active effect.
Different Absorption Rates - correct answer ✔✔Variations in drug formulation, excipients, and
manufacturing processes can lead to differences in the rate and extent of drug absorption.
P450 Enzymes - correct answer ✔✔Enzymes that can be induced or inhibited by drugs, affecting the
metabolism of other medications.
Agonist vs. Antagonist - correct answer ✔✔An agonist activates a receptor, while an antagonist blocks
the action of agonists at the receptor.
Minimizing ADRs - correct answer ✔✔Starting with the lowest effective dose, closely monitoring
patients, educating them about potential side effects, and adjusting therapy as needed can help
minimize adverse drug reactions.
, Handling Side Effects - correct answer ✔✔Assess the severity of the side effect, consider adjusting the
dose or switching to an alternative medication, and provide reassurance and education about managing
side effects.
Contributing Factors to Medication Errors - correct answer ✔✔Poor communication, ambiguous
prescriptions, similar drug names, and lack of knowledge contribute to medication errors.
Contributing Factors - correct answer ✔✔Poor communication, ambiguous prescriptions, similar drug
names, and lack of knowledge.
Minimize risks - correct answer ✔✔By using electronic prescribing, double-checking orders, educating
staff, and implementing safety protocols.
Individual Variations - correct answer ✔✔Factors such as age, weight, genetics, organ function, and
concurrent medications that can influence drug responses.
Genetic Testing - correct answer ✔✔Identifies genetic variations affecting drug metabolism and
response, allowing for personalized therapy and improved treatment outcomes.
CYP2D6 gene variations - correct answer ✔✔Affect the metabolism of drugs like codeine and
antidepressants, requiring different dosages or alternative medications for certain genetic profiles.
Teratogenic Susceptibility - correct answer ✔✔Pregnant women are most susceptible during the first
trimester when organogenesis occurs.
Minimizing Drug Concentrations in Breast Milk - correct answer ✔✔Timing doses to avoid peak drug
levels during breastfeeding, choosing drugs with low milk penetration, and using the lowest effective
dose.
Organ Function in Older Adults - correct answer ✔✔Reduced renal and hepatic function can affect drug
metabolism and excretion, necessitating dose adjustments to prevent toxicity.
Calculating GFR - correct answer ✔✔The Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) estimation using formulas like
the Cockcroft-Gault equation, considering age, weight, serum creatinine, and gender.
Beers Criteria - correct answer ✔✔A list identifying potentially inappropriate medications for older
adults, aiming to improve medication safety and reduce adverse drug events.
Example of Beers Criteria Application - correct answer ✔✔Avoiding diphenhydramine in older adults due
to anticholinergic effects causing confusion, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention.
Parasympathetic Division - correct answer ✔✔Responsible for 'rest and digest' activities, slowing the
heart rate, increasing intestinal and gland activity, and relaxing sphincter muscles.
Sympathetic Division - correct answer ✔✔Responsible for 'fight or flight' responses, preparing the body
for stressful situations by increasing heart rate, dilating pupils, and inhibiting digestion.
