PARAMEDIC PROGRAM ADMISSIONS · OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT A+ VERIFIED
EMT FISDAP Paramedic Entrance Exam -
Questions and Answers (Verified by Expert)
2026/2027 — Complete
Official Exam
A+ Verified Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Anatomy
02 Physiology
03 Mathematics
04 Airway & Cardiology
05 Medical, OB/GYN & Pediatrics
06 Trauma & EMS Operations
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in the foundational EMT knowledge required for paramedic program admission —
from anatomy, physiology, and medical terminology to mathematics, airway management,
cardiology, medical emergencies, obstetrics/gynecology, pediatrics, EMS operations, and trauma.
This assessment targets application and analysis skills required for the FISDAP Paramedic
Entrance Exam, with full rationales for every answer.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
70% Entry-Level (Paramedic Program Admissions) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: ANATOMY
Q1. During rapid trauma assessment of a 28-year-old male ejected from a vehicle you note diminished right breath sounds
and tracheal deviation to the left. Which anatomical structure is primarily responsible for the tracheal shift?
A. The right mainstem bronchus is more vertical than the left
B. The mediastinum is mobile and shifts away from the side of increased pressure
C. The diaphragm elevates on the affected side pulling the trachea
D. The aortic arch compresses the trachea toward the left
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In tension pneumothorax air under pressure collapses the lung and shifts the mediastinum including the trachea away from
the injured side. Mobility of mediastinal structures allows this deviation which is a late ominous sign.
Q2. You are preparing to insert an oropharyngeal airway in an unresponsive adult. Which structure forms the posterior
boundary of the oral cavity and must be carefully navigated?
A. The soft palate and uvula
B. The epiglottis
C. The vallecula
D. The cricoid cartilage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The soft palate and uvula form the posterior superior boundary of the oral cavity. The OPA is inserted and rotated so the tip
follows the contour of the hard and soft palate without pushing the tongue posteriorly.
Q3. A 45-year-old patient complains of severe substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which region of myocardium
is most likely ischemic in a classic anterior STEMI?
A. The inferior wall supplied by the right coronary artery
B. The anterior wall and septum supplied by the left anterior descending artery
C. The lateral wall supplied exclusively by the circumflex artery
D. The posterior wall supplied by the posterior descending artery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The LAD supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle and the anterior two-thirds of the interventricular septum. Occlusion
produces the classic anterior STEMI pattern and significant pump-failure risk.
Q4. While performing secondary survey on a patient with abdominal trauma you palpate tenderness in the right upper
quadrant. Which organ is most likely injured?
A. The spleen
B. The liver
C. The pancreas
D. The left kidney
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The liver occupies the majority of the right upper quadrant and is the largest solid organ in the abdomen. It is highly vascular
and frequently injured in blunt RUQ trauma.
Q5. You are teaching a new EMT about landmarking for chest compressions. Which anatomical landmark correctly
identifies hand placement on an adult during CPR?
A. The xiphoid process at the inferior tip of the sternum
B. The intermammary line over the lower half of the sternum
C. The sternal angle at the second rib junction
D. The clavicular notch at the superior border of the manubrium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current guidelines place the heel of the hand on the lower half of the sternum roughly at the intermammary line. Avoiding the
xiphoid reduces risk of liver laceration.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, Q6. A pediatric patient is in respiratory distress. Which anatomical difference is most clinically relevant when selecting an
airway adjunct for a 3-year-old?
A. The pediatric larynx is more posterior and the epiglottis is omega-shaped
B. The pediatric trachea is more rigid and less compressible
C. The pediatric tongue is relatively smaller in proportion to the oral cavity
D. The pediatric cricoid is the narrowest portion and the airway is funnel-shaped
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In children under approximately 8 years the cricoid ring is the narrowest portion of the airway creating a funnel shape that
influences tube sizing and susceptibility to edema.
Q7. During assessment of a patient with suspected basilar skull fracture you observe Battle’s sign. Which cranial bone is
most closely associated with this finding?
A. The frontal bone
B. The temporal bone
C. The parietal bone
D. The occipital bone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Battle’s sign (ecchymosis over the mastoid) is associated with fracture of the temporal bone specifically the petrous portion
and indicates a basilar skull fracture.
Q8. You are assessing breath sounds on a patient with suspected pneumonia. To auscultate the right middle lobe which
surface landmark is most appropriate?
A. Posteriorly between the scapulae
B. Anteriorly on the right side between the 4th and 6th intercostal spaces
C. Laterally in the left mid-axillary line
D. Posteriorly at the bases near the 10th rib
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The right middle lobe is best auscultated anteriorly on the right chest wall roughly between the 4th and 6th intercostal spaces
near the mid-clavicular line.
Q9. A patient presents with a stab wound to the left mid-axillary line at the 5th intercostal space. Which structure is at
immediate risk?
A. The liver
B. The spleen
C. The right ventricle
D. The descending aorta
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The spleen lies in the left upper quadrant and extends laterally. Penetrating trauma at this location can threaten the superior
pole of the spleen or left lung and pericardium.
Q10. While immobilizing a patient on a long spine board you note the cervical spine has a natural lordotic curve. Which
region normally exhibits a kyphotic curvature?
A. Cervical and lumbar regions
B. Thoracic and sacral regions
C. Lumbar and sacral regions
D. Cervical and thoracic regions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The thoracic and sacral regions normally have a kyphotic curvature. The cervical and lumbar regions are lordotic. Maintaining
neutral alignment respects these natural curves.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
EMT FISDAP Paramedic Entrance Exam -
Questions and Answers (Verified by Expert)
2026/2027 — Complete
Official Exam
A+ Verified Questions Full Rationales Verified Answers
A+ 6 100%
QUESTIONS SECTIONS RATIONALES
Complete coverage Core exam domains Every answer explained
WHAT THIS COVERS
01 Anatomy
02 Physiology
03 Mathematics
04 Airway & Cardiology
05 Medical, OB/GYN & Pediatrics
06 Trauma & EMS Operations
ABOUT THIS ASSESSMENT
Build mastery in the foundational EMT knowledge required for paramedic program admission —
from anatomy, physiology, and medical terminology to mathematics, airway management,
cardiology, medical emergencies, obstetrics/gynecology, pediatrics, EMS operations, and trauma.
This assessment targets application and analysis skills required for the FISDAP Paramedic
Entrance Exam, with full rationales for every answer.
PASSING SCORE LEVEL FORMAT
70% Entry-Level (Paramedic Program Admissions) Application / Analysis
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM Page 1
, SECTION 1: ANATOMY
Q1. During rapid trauma assessment of a 28-year-old male ejected from a vehicle you note diminished right breath sounds
and tracheal deviation to the left. Which anatomical structure is primarily responsible for the tracheal shift?
A. The right mainstem bronchus is more vertical than the left
B. The mediastinum is mobile and shifts away from the side of increased pressure
C. The diaphragm elevates on the affected side pulling the trachea
D. The aortic arch compresses the trachea toward the left
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In tension pneumothorax air under pressure collapses the lung and shifts the mediastinum including the trachea away from
the injured side. Mobility of mediastinal structures allows this deviation which is a late ominous sign.
Q2. You are preparing to insert an oropharyngeal airway in an unresponsive adult. Which structure forms the posterior
boundary of the oral cavity and must be carefully navigated?
A. The soft palate and uvula
B. The epiglottis
C. The vallecula
D. The cricoid cartilage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The soft palate and uvula form the posterior superior boundary of the oral cavity. The OPA is inserted and rotated so the tip
follows the contour of the hard and soft palate without pushing the tongue posteriorly.
Q3. A 45-year-old patient complains of severe substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm. Which region of myocardium
is most likely ischemic in a classic anterior STEMI?
A. The inferior wall supplied by the right coronary artery
B. The anterior wall and septum supplied by the left anterior descending artery
C. The lateral wall supplied exclusively by the circumflex artery
D. The posterior wall supplied by the posterior descending artery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The LAD supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle and the anterior two-thirds of the interventricular septum. Occlusion
produces the classic anterior STEMI pattern and significant pump-failure risk.
Q4. While performing secondary survey on a patient with abdominal trauma you palpate tenderness in the right upper
quadrant. Which organ is most likely injured?
A. The spleen
B. The liver
C. The pancreas
D. The left kidney
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The liver occupies the majority of the right upper quadrant and is the largest solid organ in the abdomen. It is highly vascular
and frequently injured in blunt RUQ trauma.
Q5. You are teaching a new EMT about landmarking for chest compressions. Which anatomical landmark correctly
identifies hand placement on an adult during CPR?
A. The xiphoid process at the inferior tip of the sternum
B. The intermammary line over the lower half of the sternum
C. The sternal angle at the second rib junction
D. The clavicular notch at the superior border of the manubrium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Current guidelines place the heel of the hand on the lower half of the sternum roughly at the intermammary line. Avoiding the
xiphoid reduces risk of liver laceration.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 2
, Q6. A pediatric patient is in respiratory distress. Which anatomical difference is most clinically relevant when selecting an
airway adjunct for a 3-year-old?
A. The pediatric larynx is more posterior and the epiglottis is omega-shaped
B. The pediatric trachea is more rigid and less compressible
C. The pediatric tongue is relatively smaller in proportion to the oral cavity
D. The pediatric cricoid is the narrowest portion and the airway is funnel-shaped
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In children under approximately 8 years the cricoid ring is the narrowest portion of the airway creating a funnel shape that
influences tube sizing and susceptibility to edema.
Q7. During assessment of a patient with suspected basilar skull fracture you observe Battle’s sign. Which cranial bone is
most closely associated with this finding?
A. The frontal bone
B. The temporal bone
C. The parietal bone
D. The occipital bone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Battle’s sign (ecchymosis over the mastoid) is associated with fracture of the temporal bone specifically the petrous portion
and indicates a basilar skull fracture.
Q8. You are assessing breath sounds on a patient with suspected pneumonia. To auscultate the right middle lobe which
surface landmark is most appropriate?
A. Posteriorly between the scapulae
B. Anteriorly on the right side between the 4th and 6th intercostal spaces
C. Laterally in the left mid-axillary line
D. Posteriorly at the bases near the 10th rib
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The right middle lobe is best auscultated anteriorly on the right chest wall roughly between the 4th and 6th intercostal spaces
near the mid-clavicular line.
Q9. A patient presents with a stab wound to the left mid-axillary line at the 5th intercostal space. Which structure is at
immediate risk?
A. The liver
B. The spleen
C. The right ventricle
D. The descending aorta
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The spleen lies in the left upper quadrant and extends laterally. Penetrating trauma at this location can threaten the superior
pole of the spleen or left lung and pericardium.
Q10. While immobilizing a patient on a long spine board you note the cervical spine has a natural lordotic curve. Which
region normally exhibits a kyphotic curvature?
A. Cervical and lumbar regions
B. Thoracic and sacral regions
C. Lumbar and sacral regions
D. Cervical and thoracic regions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The thoracic and sacral regions normally have a kyphotic curvature. The cervical and lumbar regions are lordotic. Maintaining
neutral alignment respects these natural curves.
STUVIA ACTUAL EXAM · Page 3
