• FNP 654 FINAL 09/13/2026
EXAM
FNP654/ FNP 654 FINAL EXAM 2| FAMILY
PRIMARY CARE II EXAM | QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS RATED A+ | 2026/2027
GUIDE | GCU| 2026/2027 Latest Update |
Complete Chapter Questions & Answers with
Rationales | Verified Questions & Answers |
Graded A+
The bacterium responsible for the highest mortality in patients with community- acquired pneumonia is:
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
P 1
, • FNP 654 FINAL 09/13/2026
EXAM
C) Moraxella catarrhalis
D) Haemophilus influenzae –
Correct Answer :A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Steptococcus pneumoniae is known for being responsible for the highest mortality in patients with community-
acquired pneumonia.
Mr. R. J. is a 40-year-old asthmatic male with hypertension. For the past 6 months, he has been following a low-
fat, low-sodium diet and walking 3 times a week. His BP readings from the past 2 visits were 160/95 and 170/ 100.
On this visit, it is 160/90. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse practitioner to follow at this visit?
A) Continue the lifestyle modifications and recheck his blood pressure again in 4 weeks
B) Initiate a prescription of hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg PO daily
C) Initiate a prescription of atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO daily
D) Refer the patient to a cardiologist for a stress EKG –
Correct Answer :B) Initiate a prescription of hydrochlorathiazide 12.5 mg PO daily
The patient would be started on HCTZ 12.5 mg PO daily for his high BP. He has been trying lifestyle modifications
for 6 months with diet changes and exercise.
What is the least common pathogen found in community-acquired atypical pneumonia?
A) Moxarella catarrhalis
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Mycoplasma pneumonia - Correct Answer :C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
P 2
, • FNP 654 FINAL 09/13/2026
EXAM
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an uncommon cause of CAP but is a particularly difficult bacterial infection to treat.
Which of the following is indicated for initial treatment of an uncomplicated case of Helicobacter pylori negative
peptic ulcer disease?
A) Omeprazole (Prilosec)
B) Misoprostol (Cytotec)
C) Ranitidine (Zantac)
D) Pepto-Bismol tablets - Correct Answer :B) Misoprostol (Cytotec)
Misoprostol is recommended for short-term, uncomplicated PUD; it acts by decreasing gastric acid production
and enhancing mucosal resistance to injury.
An 18-year-old waitress is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). The cervical Gen-Probe result is
positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae and negative for Chlamydia trachomatis. All of the following statements are
true regarding the man- agement of this patient except:
A) This patient should be treated for chlamydia even though the Gen-Probe for chlamydia is negative
B) Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM and doxycycline 100 mg PO BID x 14 days are appropriate treatment for this patient
C) Advise the patient to return to the clinic for a repeat pelvic exam in 48 hours
D) Repeat the Gen-Probe test for Chlamydia trachomatis to ensure that the previous test was not a false-
negative result - Correct Answer :D) Repeat the Gen-Probe test for Chlamydia trachomatis to ensure that the
previous test was not a false-negative result
Treatment for both gonorrhea and chlamydia are recommended for the diagnosis of PID, regardless if the
chlamydia test was negative.
A 35-year-old smoker is being evaluated for birth control choices. The patient has a history of PID along with an
embolic episode after her last pregnancy. Which of the following methods of birth control would you
recommend?
P 3
, • FNP 654 FINAL 09/13/2026
EXAM
A) Condoms and the vaginal sponge (Today Sponge)
B) Estrogen patches
C) Intrauterine device
D) Depo-Provera (depot medroxyprogesterone) - Correct Answer :A) Condoms and the vaginal sponge (Today
Sponge)
Contraindications for hormonal contraception include: Migraine headaches; cigarette smoking or obesity in
women older than 35 years; history of thromboembolic disease; hypertension or vascular disease if over 35 years
of age; systemic lupus erythematosus with vascular disease, nephritis, or antiphospholipid antibodies;
breastfeeding (may use progestin-only pills); hypertriglyceridemia; CAD; CHF; and strokes.
A 21-year-old woman complains of left-sided pelvic pain accompanied by dyspareunia. During the gynecological
exam, the nurse practitioner notices green cervical discharge. The patient mentions a new onset of a painful and
swollen left knee and denies a history of trauma. This best describes:
A) Septic arthritis
B) Reiter's syndrome
C) Chondromalacia of the patella
D) Disseminated gonorrheal infection - Correct Answer :D) Disseminated gonorrheal infection
Symptoms of PID with painful, swollen joints of extremities indicate disseminated gonorrheal infection.
Untreated disseminated gonorrhea can lead to septic arthritis. Symptoms may be mild from slight joint pain and
no fever to severe joint pain with high fever. PID symptoms do not occur with septic arthritis, Reiter's syndrome,
or chondromalacia of the patella.
A 25-year-old woman complains of dysuria, severe vaginal pruritis, and a malodorous vaginal discharge. Pelvic
examination reveals a strawberry-colored cervix and frothy yellow discharge. Microscopic exam of the discharge
reveals mobile organisms that have flagella. The correct pharmacologic therapy for the condition is:
A) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
P 4
EXAM
FNP654/ FNP 654 FINAL EXAM 2| FAMILY
PRIMARY CARE II EXAM | QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS RATED A+ | 2026/2027
GUIDE | GCU| 2026/2027 Latest Update |
Complete Chapter Questions & Answers with
Rationales | Verified Questions & Answers |
Graded A+
The bacterium responsible for the highest mortality in patients with community- acquired pneumonia is:
A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
P 1
, • FNP 654 FINAL 09/13/2026
EXAM
C) Moraxella catarrhalis
D) Haemophilus influenzae –
Correct Answer :A) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Steptococcus pneumoniae is known for being responsible for the highest mortality in patients with community-
acquired pneumonia.
Mr. R. J. is a 40-year-old asthmatic male with hypertension. For the past 6 months, he has been following a low-
fat, low-sodium diet and walking 3 times a week. His BP readings from the past 2 visits were 160/95 and 170/ 100.
On this visit, it is 160/90. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse practitioner to follow at this visit?
A) Continue the lifestyle modifications and recheck his blood pressure again in 4 weeks
B) Initiate a prescription of hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg PO daily
C) Initiate a prescription of atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO daily
D) Refer the patient to a cardiologist for a stress EKG –
Correct Answer :B) Initiate a prescription of hydrochlorathiazide 12.5 mg PO daily
The patient would be started on HCTZ 12.5 mg PO daily for his high BP. He has been trying lifestyle modifications
for 6 months with diet changes and exercise.
What is the least common pathogen found in community-acquired atypical pneumonia?
A) Moxarella catarrhalis
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Mycoplasma pneumonia - Correct Answer :C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
P 2
, • FNP 654 FINAL 09/13/2026
EXAM
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an uncommon cause of CAP but is a particularly difficult bacterial infection to treat.
Which of the following is indicated for initial treatment of an uncomplicated case of Helicobacter pylori negative
peptic ulcer disease?
A) Omeprazole (Prilosec)
B) Misoprostol (Cytotec)
C) Ranitidine (Zantac)
D) Pepto-Bismol tablets - Correct Answer :B) Misoprostol (Cytotec)
Misoprostol is recommended for short-term, uncomplicated PUD; it acts by decreasing gastric acid production
and enhancing mucosal resistance to injury.
An 18-year-old waitress is diagnosed with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). The cervical Gen-Probe result is
positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae and negative for Chlamydia trachomatis. All of the following statements are
true regarding the man- agement of this patient except:
A) This patient should be treated for chlamydia even though the Gen-Probe for chlamydia is negative
B) Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM and doxycycline 100 mg PO BID x 14 days are appropriate treatment for this patient
C) Advise the patient to return to the clinic for a repeat pelvic exam in 48 hours
D) Repeat the Gen-Probe test for Chlamydia trachomatis to ensure that the previous test was not a false-
negative result - Correct Answer :D) Repeat the Gen-Probe test for Chlamydia trachomatis to ensure that the
previous test was not a false-negative result
Treatment for both gonorrhea and chlamydia are recommended for the diagnosis of PID, regardless if the
chlamydia test was negative.
A 35-year-old smoker is being evaluated for birth control choices. The patient has a history of PID along with an
embolic episode after her last pregnancy. Which of the following methods of birth control would you
recommend?
P 3
, • FNP 654 FINAL 09/13/2026
EXAM
A) Condoms and the vaginal sponge (Today Sponge)
B) Estrogen patches
C) Intrauterine device
D) Depo-Provera (depot medroxyprogesterone) - Correct Answer :A) Condoms and the vaginal sponge (Today
Sponge)
Contraindications for hormonal contraception include: Migraine headaches; cigarette smoking or obesity in
women older than 35 years; history of thromboembolic disease; hypertension or vascular disease if over 35 years
of age; systemic lupus erythematosus with vascular disease, nephritis, or antiphospholipid antibodies;
breastfeeding (may use progestin-only pills); hypertriglyceridemia; CAD; CHF; and strokes.
A 21-year-old woman complains of left-sided pelvic pain accompanied by dyspareunia. During the gynecological
exam, the nurse practitioner notices green cervical discharge. The patient mentions a new onset of a painful and
swollen left knee and denies a history of trauma. This best describes:
A) Septic arthritis
B) Reiter's syndrome
C) Chondromalacia of the patella
D) Disseminated gonorrheal infection - Correct Answer :D) Disseminated gonorrheal infection
Symptoms of PID with painful, swollen joints of extremities indicate disseminated gonorrheal infection.
Untreated disseminated gonorrhea can lead to septic arthritis. Symptoms may be mild from slight joint pain and
no fever to severe joint pain with high fever. PID symptoms do not occur with septic arthritis, Reiter's syndrome,
or chondromalacia of the patella.
A 25-year-old woman complains of dysuria, severe vaginal pruritis, and a malodorous vaginal discharge. Pelvic
examination reveals a strawberry-colored cervix and frothy yellow discharge. Microscopic exam of the discharge
reveals mobile organisms that have flagella. The correct pharmacologic therapy for the condition is:
A) Metronidazole (Flagyl)
P 4
