NURS 5461 Adult Gerontology Management Across the Continuum of Care Comprehensive Exam Question Bank (Quizzes 1 - 5)

NURS 5461 Adult Gerontology Management
Across the Continuum of Care
Comprehensive Exam Question Bank (Quizzes 1 - 5)
This Question bank covers the foundational and advanced nursing practice concepts required
for the management of adult-gerontology patients. Each quiz contains exactly 40
open-ended questions designed to test clinical reasoning, diagnostic indicators,
interventions, and pathophysiology. Correct answers are highlighted in yellow, and physiological
rationales are highlighted in green.


Table of contents
1.Quiz 1: Behavioral Change Stages, Health Maintenance, and Neurological Foundations.

2.Quiz 2: Comprehensive Hematological Disorders, Anemias, Malignancies, and Coagulation
Cascade Management.

3.Quiz 3: Endocrine, Pancreatic, Adrenal, and Pituitary Metabolic Dysfunctions

4.Quiz 4: Cardiovascular Emergencies, Blood Pressure Urgencies/Emergencies, Dysrhythmias,
and Heart Failure Dynamics.

5.Quiz 5: Advanced Renal Pathophysiology, Electrolyte and Acid-Base Management, and
Oncological Emergency Screenings.

QUIZ 1: Behavioral Stages, Health Maintenance & Neurological
Foundations
Question 1: What behavioral change stage describes a patient who has no intention of
changing their high-risk lifestyle within the next 6 months?

 Answer: Precontemplation.
 Rationale: The individual is unaware or in denial of the problem and sees no need for
modification.

Question 2: Which stage of change is identified when a patient acknowledges a problem exists
and considers making a change within 6 months, but remains ambivalent?

 Answer: Contemplation.
 Rationale: The patient weighs the pros and cons of changing behavior without a firm
commitment.

Question 3: A patient is actively planning to enroll in a smoking cessation program within the
next 30 days and has taken small preparatory steps. What stage is this?

, Answer: Preparation.
 Rationale: Intent to act is combined with small behavioral modifications indicating
immediate readiness.

Question 4: What term defines the active modification of behavior and environment over a
period of 1 to 6 months?

 Answer: Action stage.
 Rationale: The patient visibly alters habits, lifestyle, or environment to overcome the clinical
problem.

Question 5: Which stage follows the action stage, lasting from 6 months onward to prevent
relapse and solidify new behaviors?

 Answer: Maintenance stage.
 Rationale: Stabilization of behavior occurs, requiring ongoing vigilance to avoid triggers.

Question 6: What facial muscle twitching in response to tapping over the facial nerve signals
hypocalcemia?

 Answer: Chvostek's sign.
 Rationale: Facial nerve hyper-excitability reflects low extracellular ionized calcium altering
neuromuscular membrane thresholds.

Question 7: How is Trousseau’s sign induced during a physical examination for latent tetany?

 Answer: Inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for 3 minutes.
 Rationale: Induced ischemia restricts brachial blood flow, triggering carpal spasms in
hypocalcemic states.

Question 8: What electrolyte disturbance is primarily responsible for a positive Chvostek’s and
Trousseau’s sign?

 Answer: Hypocalcemia.
 Rationale: Genetic or acquired decrease in ionized calcium increases sodium permeability
across cell membranes, lowering the action potential threshold.

Question 9: What clinical sign involves extension of the big toe and fanning of the other toes
upon lateral sole stimulation in adults?

 Answer: Positive Babinski sign.
 Rationale: Indicates upper motor neuron lesion or corticospinal tract dysfunction.

Question 10: What pathological finding does decorticate posturing signify regarding central
nervous system damage?

 Answer: Damage to the corticospinal tract and cerebral hemispheres.
 Rationale: Characterized by arms adducted, flexed, and legs internally rotated, reflecting
severe brain injury above the brainstem.

, Question 11: What anatomical level of brain injury is indicated by decerebrate posturing (rigid
extension of extremities)?

 Answer: Brainstem injury (specifically midbrain or pons).
 Rationale: Uninhibited vestibular nuclei activity leads to extensor posturing, denoting worse
prognosis than decorticate posturing.

Question 12: What cranial nerve is assessed by testing visual acuity and visual fields?

 Answer: Cranial Nerve II (Optic nerve).
 Rationale: Transmits visual stimuli from the retina to the occipital cortex.

Question 13: Which cranial nerve controls pupillary constriction and extraocular movements via
superior, inferior, and medial rectus muscles?

 Answer: Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor nerve).
 Rationale: Innervates most extraocular muscles and parasympathetic fibers for pupillary
light reflex.

Question 14: Inability to look down and inward indicates dysfunction of which cranial nerve?

 Answer: Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear nerve).
 Rationale: Innervates the superior oblique muscle responsible for downward and inward
gaze.

Question 15: Testing corneal reflex sensation on the face evaluates the sensory component of
which cranial nerve?

 Answer: Cranial Nerve V (Trigeminal nerve).
 Rationale: Provides primary sensory innervation to the face and motor innervation to
muscles of mastication.

Question 16: Diplopia and failure of lateral eye abduction point to a deficit in which cranial
nerve?

 Answer: Cranial Nerve VI (Abducens nerve).
 Rationale: Innervates the lateral rectus muscle, which abducts the eye.

Question 17: Facial asymmetry, drooping of the eyelid, and inability to close the eye tightly
relate to pathology of which nerve?

 Answer: Cranial Nerve VII (Facial nerve).
 Rationale: Controls muscles of facial expression and taste on the anterior two-thirds of the
tongue.

Question 18: A patient presents with sensorineural hearing loss and vertigo. Which cranial
nerve is primarily implicated?

 Answer: Cranial Nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve).