ATI-PHARM VERIFIED ANSWERS AND QUESTIONS - MOST
RECENT EDITION 2026/2027
Q: What is the "six rights" of medication administration?
ANSWER Right Patient, Right Medication, Right Dose, Right Route, Right
Time, Right Documentation.
Q: Which barcode is scanned first during medication administration?
ANSWER The patient's wristband.
Q: What is the primary purpose of a "High Alert" medication designation?
ANSWER To ensure increased vigilance because the medication carries a
higher risk of causing significant patient harm when used in error.
Q: A patient is having a mild allergic reaction (rash). What class of
medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
ANSWER Antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine).
Q: What is the most critical step to prevent medication errors?
ANSWER Identifying the patient using two identifiers (e.g., name and
date of birth).
Q: Which route of administration has the slowest onset of action?
ANSWER Oral (PO).
Q: What is the antidote for Acetaminophen (Tylenol) toxicity?
ANSWER Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
Q: What is the antidote for Opiate overdose?
ANSWER Naloxone (Narcan).
Q: What is the antidote for Warfarin (Coumadin) toxicity?
ANSWER Vitamin K.
Q: What is the antidote for Heparin toxicity?
,ANSWER Protamine sulfate.
Q: What is the antidote for Benzodiazepine overdose?
ANSWER Flumazenil (Romazicon).
Q: What is the antidote for Digoxin toxicity?
ANSWER Digoxin Immune Fab (Digibind).
Q: When should a nurse draw a peak level for a medication?
ANSWER Immediately before the next scheduled dose (trough) or 30-60
min after IV infusion finishes (peak), depending on the drug. (Typically
peak is drawn after absorption).
Q: What is a "trough" level?
ANSWER The lowest serum concentration of a medication, usually
drawn immediately before the next dose.
Q: Which medication requires a "test dose" to be given prior to starting
full therapy to assess for anaphylaxis?
ANSWER Iron dextran or antithymocyte globulin.
Q: A patient states they are allergic to Penicillin. What is the nurse's
priority action?
ANSWER Ask what type of reaction occurred (rash vs. anaphylaxis).
Q: What is the Black Box Warning for Tramadol?
ANSWER Risk of seizure and serotonin syndrome.
Q: What is the Black Box Warning for Fluoroquinolones (e.g., Cipro)?
ANSWER Tendon rupture and tendonitis.
Q: Can the nurse crush enteric-coated tablets?
ANSWER No, it destroys the coating designed to protect the stomach or
allow absorption in the intestines.
Q: Can the nurse crush sustained-release tablets?
ANSWER No, it causes the entire dose to be absorbed at once, leading to
toxicity.
Section 2: Pain and Inflammation
, 21. Q: What is the primary side effect of Opioids that the nurse must
monitor for?
ANSWER Respiratory depression.
22. Q: What medication should be administered before surgery to reduce
the risk of aspiration and decrease secretions?
ANSWER Anticholinergics (e.g., Glycopyrrolate/Robinul, Atropine).
23. Q: What is a common side effect of Opioids that requires prophylactic
treatment?
ANSWER Constipation (stool softeners/laxatives).
24. Q: What is the priority assessment for a patient taking Morphine?
ANSWER Respiratory rate (should be >10/min).
25. Q: What is the trade name for Naloxone?
ANSWER Narcan.
26. Q: What is the mechanism of action for NSAIDs (e.g., Ibuprofen)?
ANSWER Inhibit COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandins, thereby
decreasing pain, inflammation, and fever.
27. Q: What is a major adverse effect of long-term NSAID use?
ANSWER GI bleeding/ulcers.
28. Q: What is a common side effect of Aspirin?
ANSWER Ringing in the ears (tinnitus).
29. Q: What is the mechanism of action for Acetaminophen (Tylenol)?
ANSWER Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in the CNS (acts as an
antipyretic and analgesic, but has minimal anti-inflammatory effects).
30. Q: What is the maximum daily dose of Acetaminophen for a healthy
adult?
ANSWER 4000 mg (often lowered to 3000 mg in older adults or those
with liver issues).
31. Q: What medication is used for moderate to severe severe pain, often
in cancer patients?
RECENT EDITION 2026/2027
Q: What is the "six rights" of medication administration?
ANSWER Right Patient, Right Medication, Right Dose, Right Route, Right
Time, Right Documentation.
Q: Which barcode is scanned first during medication administration?
ANSWER The patient's wristband.
Q: What is the primary purpose of a "High Alert" medication designation?
ANSWER To ensure increased vigilance because the medication carries a
higher risk of causing significant patient harm when used in error.
Q: A patient is having a mild allergic reaction (rash). What class of
medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
ANSWER Antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine).
Q: What is the most critical step to prevent medication errors?
ANSWER Identifying the patient using two identifiers (e.g., name and
date of birth).
Q: Which route of administration has the slowest onset of action?
ANSWER Oral (PO).
Q: What is the antidote for Acetaminophen (Tylenol) toxicity?
ANSWER Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
Q: What is the antidote for Opiate overdose?
ANSWER Naloxone (Narcan).
Q: What is the antidote for Warfarin (Coumadin) toxicity?
ANSWER Vitamin K.
Q: What is the antidote for Heparin toxicity?
,ANSWER Protamine sulfate.
Q: What is the antidote for Benzodiazepine overdose?
ANSWER Flumazenil (Romazicon).
Q: What is the antidote for Digoxin toxicity?
ANSWER Digoxin Immune Fab (Digibind).
Q: When should a nurse draw a peak level for a medication?
ANSWER Immediately before the next scheduled dose (trough) or 30-60
min after IV infusion finishes (peak), depending on the drug. (Typically
peak is drawn after absorption).
Q: What is a "trough" level?
ANSWER The lowest serum concentration of a medication, usually
drawn immediately before the next dose.
Q: Which medication requires a "test dose" to be given prior to starting
full therapy to assess for anaphylaxis?
ANSWER Iron dextran or antithymocyte globulin.
Q: A patient states they are allergic to Penicillin. What is the nurse's
priority action?
ANSWER Ask what type of reaction occurred (rash vs. anaphylaxis).
Q: What is the Black Box Warning for Tramadol?
ANSWER Risk of seizure and serotonin syndrome.
Q: What is the Black Box Warning for Fluoroquinolones (e.g., Cipro)?
ANSWER Tendon rupture and tendonitis.
Q: Can the nurse crush enteric-coated tablets?
ANSWER No, it destroys the coating designed to protect the stomach or
allow absorption in the intestines.
Q: Can the nurse crush sustained-release tablets?
ANSWER No, it causes the entire dose to be absorbed at once, leading to
toxicity.
Section 2: Pain and Inflammation
, 21. Q: What is the primary side effect of Opioids that the nurse must
monitor for?
ANSWER Respiratory depression.
22. Q: What medication should be administered before surgery to reduce
the risk of aspiration and decrease secretions?
ANSWER Anticholinergics (e.g., Glycopyrrolate/Robinul, Atropine).
23. Q: What is a common side effect of Opioids that requires prophylactic
treatment?
ANSWER Constipation (stool softeners/laxatives).
24. Q: What is the priority assessment for a patient taking Morphine?
ANSWER Respiratory rate (should be >10/min).
25. Q: What is the trade name for Naloxone?
ANSWER Narcan.
26. Q: What is the mechanism of action for NSAIDs (e.g., Ibuprofen)?
ANSWER Inhibit COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandins, thereby
decreasing pain, inflammation, and fever.
27. Q: What is a major adverse effect of long-term NSAID use?
ANSWER GI bleeding/ulcers.
28. Q: What is a common side effect of Aspirin?
ANSWER Ringing in the ears (tinnitus).
29. Q: What is the mechanism of action for Acetaminophen (Tylenol)?
ANSWER Inhibits prostaglandin synthesis in the CNS (acts as an
antipyretic and analgesic, but has minimal anti-inflammatory effects).
30. Q: What is the maximum daily dose of Acetaminophen for a healthy
adult?
ANSWER 4000 mg (often lowered to 3000 mg in older adults or those
with liver issues).
31. Q: What medication is used for moderate to severe severe pain, often
in cancer patients?
