PN MEDICAL-SURGICAL • 2026/2027
PN Hesi Med Surg Exam
2026/2027 Test Bank With Real Exam
A+
Prep Questions And Correct Answers
With Detailed Rationales
Hesi PN Med Surg Exam | Pn Hesi Medical Surgical
A+ QUESTIONS VERIFIED 5 SECTIONS 100% RATIONALES
A+ Verified Complete Coverage Detailed Explanations
CATEGORIES
1. Cardiovascular Disorders
2. Respiratory Disorders
3. Gastrointestinal & Endocrine Disorders
4. Renal, Neurological & Musculoskeletal Disorders
5. Integumentary, Hematologic, Fluid/Electrolyte & Perioperative Care
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
Q1. A 68-year-old client with a history of heart failure is admitted with progressive dyspnea and 3+ pitting edema
of the lower extremities. The nurse notes a weight gain of 4 kg since the last clinic visit two weeks ago. Which
nursing action should receive the highest priority?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate in the hallway three times daily.
B. Administer the prescribed diuretic and monitor urine output closely.
C. Provide a high-sodium diet to improve fluid balance.
D. Restrict oral fluids to 500 mL per day without physician order.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rapid weight gain and progressive edema indicate fluid volume overload requiring prompt diuresis. Monitoring
urine output evaluates the effectiveness of the diuretic. Ambulation and high-sodium intake would worsen overload, and
fluid restriction requires a specific order.
Q2. Four hours after admission for an acute myocardial infarction, a client reports sudden sharp chest pain that
worsens with inspiration and is relieved by leaning forward. The nurse auscultates a pericardial friction rub. What
is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
A. Administer morphine sulfate immediately for pain relief.
B. Place the client in a high-Fowler position and reassess.
C. Notify the health care provider of possible pericarditis.
D. Prepare the client for emergency pericardiocentesis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A friction rub after MI suggests pericarditis, a known complication. The provider must be informed promptly so
anti-inflammatory therapy can be ordered. Morphine may mask symptoms, and pericardiocentesis is reserved for
tamponade, not simple pericarditis.
Q3. A client with a blood pressure of 210/120 mm Hg is experiencing severe headache and blurred vision. The
nurse has administered the prescribed intravenous antihypertensive. Which finding indicates the medication is
achieving the desired effect?
A. Blood pressure decreases to 160/90 mm Hg within 30 minutes.
B. The client reports complete resolution of the headache immediately.
C. Heart rate increases from 78 to 110 beats per minute.
D. Urine output decreases to less than 20 mL per hour.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gradual reduction of blood pressure toward a safer range is the therapeutic goal in hypertensive urgency/crisis
to avoid organ hypoperfusion. Immediate complete headache resolution is unrealistic, tachycardia may signal
compensatory response, and oliguria indicates worsening perfusion.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 2
, Q4. A client with chronic atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin. During discharge teaching the nurse emphasizes
the importance of consistent vitamin K intake. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding?
A. I should avoid all vegetables that contain any vitamin K.
B. I can take extra vitamin K supplements if my INR is high.
C. I will double my warfarin dose on days I eat spinach.
D. I will eat the same amount of green leafy vegetables each day.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Consistency in vitamin K intake stabilizes the INR because warfarin antagonizes vitamin K. Complete
avoidance is unnecessary and can lead to nutritional deficits. Self-adjusting the dose or adding supplements without
guidance is dangerous.
Q5. A client with peripheral arterial disease reports leg pain that occurs after walking one block and is relieved by
rest. The nurse documents this finding and plans teaching. Which instruction is most important to include?
A. Elevate the legs above heart level whenever sitting or lying down.
B. Walk until the point of pain, rest, then continue walking as tolerated.
C. Apply heating pads directly to the affected legs for comfort.
D. Cross the legs at the knees when sitting to improve circulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Supervised walking to the point of claudication, followed by rest and continuation, promotes collateral
circulation. Elevation, direct heat, and crossing the legs can further compromise arterial flow and should be avoided.
Q6. A postoperative client is receiving sequential compression devices and subcutaneous heparin. On the
second postoperative day the client develops sudden unilateral leg swelling, warmth, and calf tenderness. What
is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Notify the health care provider and keep the client on bed rest.
B. Massage the affected calf to promote venous return.
C. Apply a warm compress and encourage ambulation.
D. Remove the sequential compression device from both legs.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sudden unilateral swelling and tenderness suggest deep-vein thrombosis. The provider must be notified and
the client kept on bed rest to prevent embolization. Massage and ambulation increase the risk of dislodging a clot.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 3
PN Hesi Med Surg Exam
2026/2027 Test Bank With Real Exam
A+
Prep Questions And Correct Answers
With Detailed Rationales
Hesi PN Med Surg Exam | Pn Hesi Medical Surgical
A+ QUESTIONS VERIFIED 5 SECTIONS 100% RATIONALES
A+ Verified Complete Coverage Detailed Explanations
CATEGORIES
1. Cardiovascular Disorders
2. Respiratory Disorders
3. Gastrointestinal & Endocrine Disorders
4. Renal, Neurological & Musculoskeletal Disorders
5. Integumentary, Hematologic, Fluid/Electrolyte & Perioperative Care
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
Q1. A 68-year-old client with a history of heart failure is admitted with progressive dyspnea and 3+ pitting edema
of the lower extremities. The nurse notes a weight gain of 4 kg since the last clinic visit two weeks ago. Which
nursing action should receive the highest priority?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate in the hallway three times daily.
B. Administer the prescribed diuretic and monitor urine output closely.
C. Provide a high-sodium diet to improve fluid balance.
D. Restrict oral fluids to 500 mL per day without physician order.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rapid weight gain and progressive edema indicate fluid volume overload requiring prompt diuresis. Monitoring
urine output evaluates the effectiveness of the diuretic. Ambulation and high-sodium intake would worsen overload, and
fluid restriction requires a specific order.
Q2. Four hours after admission for an acute myocardial infarction, a client reports sudden sharp chest pain that
worsens with inspiration and is relieved by leaning forward. The nurse auscultates a pericardial friction rub. What
is the most appropriate initial nursing action?
A. Administer morphine sulfate immediately for pain relief.
B. Place the client in a high-Fowler position and reassess.
C. Notify the health care provider of possible pericarditis.
D. Prepare the client for emergency pericardiocentesis.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A friction rub after MI suggests pericarditis, a known complication. The provider must be informed promptly so
anti-inflammatory therapy can be ordered. Morphine may mask symptoms, and pericardiocentesis is reserved for
tamponade, not simple pericarditis.
Q3. A client with a blood pressure of 210/120 mm Hg is experiencing severe headache and blurred vision. The
nurse has administered the prescribed intravenous antihypertensive. Which finding indicates the medication is
achieving the desired effect?
A. Blood pressure decreases to 160/90 mm Hg within 30 minutes.
B. The client reports complete resolution of the headache immediately.
C. Heart rate increases from 78 to 110 beats per minute.
D. Urine output decreases to less than 20 mL per hour.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gradual reduction of blood pressure toward a safer range is the therapeutic goal in hypertensive urgency/crisis
to avoid organ hypoperfusion. Immediate complete headache resolution is unrealistic, tachycardia may signal
compensatory response, and oliguria indicates worsening perfusion.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 2
, Q4. A client with chronic atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin. During discharge teaching the nurse emphasizes
the importance of consistent vitamin K intake. Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding?
A. I should avoid all vegetables that contain any vitamin K.
B. I can take extra vitamin K supplements if my INR is high.
C. I will double my warfarin dose on days I eat spinach.
D. I will eat the same amount of green leafy vegetables each day.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Consistency in vitamin K intake stabilizes the INR because warfarin antagonizes vitamin K. Complete
avoidance is unnecessary and can lead to nutritional deficits. Self-adjusting the dose or adding supplements without
guidance is dangerous.
Q5. A client with peripheral arterial disease reports leg pain that occurs after walking one block and is relieved by
rest. The nurse documents this finding and plans teaching. Which instruction is most important to include?
A. Elevate the legs above heart level whenever sitting or lying down.
B. Walk until the point of pain, rest, then continue walking as tolerated.
C. Apply heating pads directly to the affected legs for comfort.
D. Cross the legs at the knees when sitting to improve circulation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Supervised walking to the point of claudication, followed by rest and continuation, promotes collateral
circulation. Elevation, direct heat, and crossing the legs can further compromise arterial flow and should be avoided.
Q6. A postoperative client is receiving sequential compression devices and subcutaneous heparin. On the
second postoperative day the client develops sudden unilateral leg swelling, warmth, and calf tenderness. What
is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Notify the health care provider and keep the client on bed rest.
B. Massage the affected calf to promote venous return.
C. Apply a warm compress and encourage ambulation.
D. Remove the sequential compression device from both legs.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sudden unilateral swelling and tenderness suggest deep-vein thrombosis. The provider must be notified and
the client kept on bed rest to prevent embolization. Massage and ambulation increase the risk of dislodging a clot.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM Page 3
