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NUR 2502 / NUR2502 FINAL EXAM – EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF

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NUR 2502 / NUR2502 FINAL EXAM – EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF

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NUR 2502 / NUR2502 FINAL EXAM – EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF

1. A client with chronic heart failure asks why the nurse recommends checking their
weight every morning. What is the primary reason for this instruction?

A. To determine whether the client is gaining muscle mass

B. To evaluate the effectiveness of dietary protein intake

C. To identify early fluid retention before severe symptoms develop

D. To determine whether the client needs additional calories

Rationale: Daily weight monitoring provides an early indication of fluid accumulation. A rapid
increase in weight can occur before obvious edema or respiratory symptoms become severe.

2. Which assessment finding is most consistent with left-sided heart failure?

A. Jugular venous distention

B. Bilateral crackles in the lungs

C. Dependent peripheral edema

D. Enlarged liver

Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes blood to back up into the pulmonary circulation,
producing pulmonary congestion and crackles. Jugular venous distention, peripheral edema,
and hepatomegaly are more characteristic of systemic venous congestion associated with right-
sided failure.

3. A client with heart failure reports increasing fatigue and shortness of breath when
performing activities that previously caused no symptoms. How should the nurse
interpret these findings?

A. They may indicate worsening cardiac function.

B. They are expected effects of adequate treatment.

C. They indicate that fluid restriction should be discontinued.

D. They demonstrate improved cardiac output.

,Rationale: Increasing fatigue and exertional dyspnea can indicate progression or worsening of
heart failure. These findings require further assessment rather than assuming that treatment is
effective.

4. A client receiving furosemide for heart failure should be monitored most closely
for which laboratory abnormality?

A. Increased calcium

B. Increased sodium

C. Decreased chloride only

D. Decreased potassium

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases urinary potassium loss. Hypokalemia
can contribute to muscle weakness and potentially dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias.

5. A client with acute pulmonary edema is severely dyspneic and has oxygen
saturation of 82%. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

A. Encourage oral fluids

B. Place the client flat in bed

C. Position the client upright and administer prescribed oxygen

D. Encourage ambulation to improve circulation

Rationale: Severe hypoxemia is an immediate priority. Upright positioning decreases venous
return and pulmonary congestion while supplemental oxygen supports oxygenation.

6. Which statement by a client taking digoxin indicates correct understanding of
medication safety?

A. “I should take an extra dose whenever my pulse is fast.”

B. “I can stop the medication when my swelling improves.”

C. “I should double the next dose if I forget one.”

D. “I should report nausea, visual changes, or unusual slow heartbeats.”

Rationale: Nausea, visual disturbances, and bradycardia can be manifestations of digoxin
toxicity. Clients should not independently adjust or double doses.

, 7. Before administering digoxin, which assessment is particularly important?

A. Apical pulse

B. Bowel sounds

C. Pupil size

D. Skin temperature

Rationale: Digoxin can slow the heart rate and alter cardiac conduction. The nurse should
assess the apical pulse before administration and follow prescribed parameters for withholding
the medication.

8. A client with heart failure has a prescription for an ACE inhibitor. Which laboratory
value requires particular monitoring during therapy?

A. Hemoglobin

B. Serum potassium

C. Platelet count

D. Serum amylase

Rationale: ACE inhibitors can increase serum potassium, particularly in clients with renal
impairment or those taking other medications that raise potassium levels.

9. Which assessment finding in a client with heart failure requires the most
immediate follow-up?

A. Mild fatigue after walking

B. Trace ankle edema at the end of the day

C. New severe dyspnea with pink, frothy sputum

D. Need for two pillows while sleeping

Rationale: Severe dyspnea accompanied by pink, frothy sputum suggests acute pulmonary
edema, a potentially life-threatening complication requiring immediate intervention.

10. A client with heart failure is prescribed a sodium-restricted diet. Which meal
selection best demonstrates understanding?

A. Ham sandwich with canned soup

, B. Bacon, eggs, and salted potatoes

C. Canned vegetables with processed cheese

D. Grilled chicken, fresh vegetables, and unsalted rice

Rationale: Fresh, minimally processed foods are generally lower in sodium than cured meats,
canned soups, processed cheese, and heavily salted foods.

11. A client with right-sided heart failure is most likely to develop which finding?

A. Pulmonary crackles only

B. Pink frothy sputum

C. Dependent peripheral edema

D. Severe hemoptysis

Rationale: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic venous congestion, commonly producing
dependent edema, jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, and weight gain.

12. A client reports waking at night suddenly feeling short of breath. Which term
describes this symptom?

A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

B. Orthostatic hypotension

C. Intermittent claudication

D. Bradypnea

Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is sudden nighttime shortness of breath that may
awaken a client from sleep and is commonly associated with heart failure.

13. Which finding would most strongly suggest fluid volume overload in a client with
heart failure?

A. Dry mucous membranes

B. Flat neck veins

C. Decreased body weight

D. Rapid weight gain over several days

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