NUR 2513 / NUR2513 FINAL EXAM – EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A pregnant client asks why folic acid is emphasized during the first weeks of
pregnancy. Which response is most accurate?
A. It prevents gestational diabetes. B. It promotes fetal lung maturation. C. It helps reduce the
risk of neural tube defects. D. It prevents postpartum hemorrhage.
Rationale: Folic acid is essential for normal neural tube development, and adequate intake
before conception and during early pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects. It does not
directly prevent gestational diabetes, accelerate lung maturation, or prevent postpartum
hemorrhage.
2. A client with a regular 28-day menstrual cycle asks when ovulation generally
occurs. Which timing should the nurse explain?
A. Approximately 14 days before the next menstrual period B. Approximately 14 days after
the next menstrual period begins C. During the first 2 days of menstruation D. Immediately after
menstruation ends
Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs about 14 days before the onset of the next menstrual
period. In a 28-day cycle, this is commonly around day 14, although individual variation occurs.
3. During an initial prenatal assessment, which finding provides the most definitive
evidence of pregnancy?
A. Positive urine pregnancy test B. Missed menstrual period C. Breast tenderness D. Fetal
cardiac activity identified by an appropriate diagnostic method
Rationale: Fetal cardiac activity is a positive sign of pregnancy because it directly demonstrates
the presence of a fetus. Amenorrhea, breast changes, and a positive pregnancy test are
presumptive or probable signs.
4. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports mild nausea that is worse in the
morning. Which nursing recommendation is most appropriate?
A. Drink large amounts of fluid with meals. B. Skip breakfast until the nausea resolves. C. Eat
small, frequent meals and keep a dry snack available. D. Consume high-fat foods before
getting out of bed.
Rationale: Small, frequent meals and a dry carbohydrate-containing snack before rising may
reduce pregnancy-related nausea. Large meals, prolonged fasting, and high-fat foods may
worsen symptoms.
, 5. Which maternal adaptation is expected during a normal pregnancy?
A. Persistent severe hypertension B. Increased blood volume C. Decreased cardiac output
throughout pregnancy D. Progressive reduction in oxygen consumption
Rationale: Maternal blood volume increases substantially during pregnancy to support
uteroplacental circulation and prepare for blood loss during birth. Severe hypertension and
reduced cardiac output are not expected normal adaptations.
6. A pregnant client asks why the fundus is measured during prenatal visits. What is
the primary purpose of fundal-height measurement?
A. To determine fetal sex B. To diagnose fetal genetic disorders C. To measure maternal pelvic
capacity D. To assess fetal growth and estimate gestational development
Rationale: Fundal height provides a convenient clinical estimate of uterine and fetal growth.
Significant discrepancies may prompt further assessment, such as ultrasound evaluation.
7. A client who is 24 weeks pregnant reports increased urinary frequency but denies
dysuria, fever, or flank pain. Which explanation is most appropriate?
A. Uterine enlargement can increase pressure on the bladder. B. Urinary frequency always
indicates a urinary tract infection. C. Pregnancy normally causes permanent bladder damage. D.
The symptom indicates premature labor.
Rationale: As the uterus enlarges, it can place pressure on the bladder, causing increased
urinary frequency. Infection should be suspected when frequency is accompanied by symptoms
such as dysuria, fever, or flank pain.
8. Which prenatal finding should the nurse report promptly because it may indicate
a serious pregnancy complication?
A. Mild dependent ankle edema at the end of the day B. Occasional urinary frequency C.
Vaginal bleeding accompanied by abdominal pain D. Mild breast tenderness
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding with abdominal pain can indicate conditions such as miscarriage,
placental problems, or other pregnancy complications and requires prompt evaluation. Mild
dependent edema and common urinary or breast changes may occur normally.
9. A pregnant client asks why blood pressure is monitored at every prenatal visit.
The nurse explains that blood-pressure assessment is particularly important for
detecting:
A. Hyperemesis gravidarum B. Gestational age C. Fetal presentation D. Hypertensive disorders
of pregnancy
, Rationale: Blood-pressure monitoring helps identify gestational hypertension and preeclampsia.
These disorders can progress rapidly and threaten both maternal and fetal well-being.
10. A client at 30 weeks of gestation reports a sudden severe headache and seeing
spots. What is the nurse's priority response?
A. Encourage the client to rest at home. B. Recommend increasing dietary sodium. C. Arrange
immediate evaluation for a possible hypertensive disorder. D. Explain that visual changes are
expected late in pregnancy.
Rationale: Severe headache and visual disturbances are warning signs associated with
preeclampsia and require immediate assessment. They should not be dismissed as normal
pregnancy discomforts.
11. Which finding is most concerning in a pregnant client with suspected
preeclampsia?
A. Mild nausea B. Increased appetite C. Urinary frequency D. Right upper quadrant or
epigastric pain
Rationale: Right upper quadrant or epigastric pain may reflect hepatic involvement in severe
preeclampsia and warrants urgent evaluation. It can occur with other severe features such as
headache, visual disturbances, and abnormal laboratory findings.
12. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which assessment
finding requires immediate nursing attention?
A. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute B. Urine output of 45 mL/hour C. Patellar reflexes of
2+ D. Blood pressure of 142/88 mm Hg
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can cause toxicity, including respiratory depression. A respiratory
rate of 10 breaths/minute is concerning and requires immediate intervention and evaluation.
Loss of reflexes and decreasing urine output are also important toxicity indicators.
13. Which medication should be readily available when a client receives magnesium
sulfate for seizure prophylaxis?
A. Oxytocin B. Methylergonovine C. Calcium gluconate D. Terbutaline
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for clinically significant magnesium toxicity. It
should be readily available when magnesium sulfate is administered.
14. A pregnant client with gestational diabetes asks why glucose control is important.
Poorly controlled maternal hyperglycemia increases the risk of:
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A pregnant client asks why folic acid is emphasized during the first weeks of
pregnancy. Which response is most accurate?
A. It prevents gestational diabetes. B. It promotes fetal lung maturation. C. It helps reduce the
risk of neural tube defects. D. It prevents postpartum hemorrhage.
Rationale: Folic acid is essential for normal neural tube development, and adequate intake
before conception and during early pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects. It does not
directly prevent gestational diabetes, accelerate lung maturation, or prevent postpartum
hemorrhage.
2. A client with a regular 28-day menstrual cycle asks when ovulation generally
occurs. Which timing should the nurse explain?
A. Approximately 14 days before the next menstrual period B. Approximately 14 days after
the next menstrual period begins C. During the first 2 days of menstruation D. Immediately after
menstruation ends
Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs about 14 days before the onset of the next menstrual
period. In a 28-day cycle, this is commonly around day 14, although individual variation occurs.
3. During an initial prenatal assessment, which finding provides the most definitive
evidence of pregnancy?
A. Positive urine pregnancy test B. Missed menstrual period C. Breast tenderness D. Fetal
cardiac activity identified by an appropriate diagnostic method
Rationale: Fetal cardiac activity is a positive sign of pregnancy because it directly demonstrates
the presence of a fetus. Amenorrhea, breast changes, and a positive pregnancy test are
presumptive or probable signs.
4. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports mild nausea that is worse in the
morning. Which nursing recommendation is most appropriate?
A. Drink large amounts of fluid with meals. B. Skip breakfast until the nausea resolves. C. Eat
small, frequent meals and keep a dry snack available. D. Consume high-fat foods before
getting out of bed.
Rationale: Small, frequent meals and a dry carbohydrate-containing snack before rising may
reduce pregnancy-related nausea. Large meals, prolonged fasting, and high-fat foods may
worsen symptoms.
, 5. Which maternal adaptation is expected during a normal pregnancy?
A. Persistent severe hypertension B. Increased blood volume C. Decreased cardiac output
throughout pregnancy D. Progressive reduction in oxygen consumption
Rationale: Maternal blood volume increases substantially during pregnancy to support
uteroplacental circulation and prepare for blood loss during birth. Severe hypertension and
reduced cardiac output are not expected normal adaptations.
6. A pregnant client asks why the fundus is measured during prenatal visits. What is
the primary purpose of fundal-height measurement?
A. To determine fetal sex B. To diagnose fetal genetic disorders C. To measure maternal pelvic
capacity D. To assess fetal growth and estimate gestational development
Rationale: Fundal height provides a convenient clinical estimate of uterine and fetal growth.
Significant discrepancies may prompt further assessment, such as ultrasound evaluation.
7. A client who is 24 weeks pregnant reports increased urinary frequency but denies
dysuria, fever, or flank pain. Which explanation is most appropriate?
A. Uterine enlargement can increase pressure on the bladder. B. Urinary frequency always
indicates a urinary tract infection. C. Pregnancy normally causes permanent bladder damage. D.
The symptom indicates premature labor.
Rationale: As the uterus enlarges, it can place pressure on the bladder, causing increased
urinary frequency. Infection should be suspected when frequency is accompanied by symptoms
such as dysuria, fever, or flank pain.
8. Which prenatal finding should the nurse report promptly because it may indicate
a serious pregnancy complication?
A. Mild dependent ankle edema at the end of the day B. Occasional urinary frequency C.
Vaginal bleeding accompanied by abdominal pain D. Mild breast tenderness
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding with abdominal pain can indicate conditions such as miscarriage,
placental problems, or other pregnancy complications and requires prompt evaluation. Mild
dependent edema and common urinary or breast changes may occur normally.
9. A pregnant client asks why blood pressure is monitored at every prenatal visit.
The nurse explains that blood-pressure assessment is particularly important for
detecting:
A. Hyperemesis gravidarum B. Gestational age C. Fetal presentation D. Hypertensive disorders
of pregnancy
, Rationale: Blood-pressure monitoring helps identify gestational hypertension and preeclampsia.
These disorders can progress rapidly and threaten both maternal and fetal well-being.
10. A client at 30 weeks of gestation reports a sudden severe headache and seeing
spots. What is the nurse's priority response?
A. Encourage the client to rest at home. B. Recommend increasing dietary sodium. C. Arrange
immediate evaluation for a possible hypertensive disorder. D. Explain that visual changes are
expected late in pregnancy.
Rationale: Severe headache and visual disturbances are warning signs associated with
preeclampsia and require immediate assessment. They should not be dismissed as normal
pregnancy discomforts.
11. Which finding is most concerning in a pregnant client with suspected
preeclampsia?
A. Mild nausea B. Increased appetite C. Urinary frequency D. Right upper quadrant or
epigastric pain
Rationale: Right upper quadrant or epigastric pain may reflect hepatic involvement in severe
preeclampsia and warrants urgent evaluation. It can occur with other severe features such as
headache, visual disturbances, and abnormal laboratory findings.
12. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which assessment
finding requires immediate nursing attention?
A. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute B. Urine output of 45 mL/hour C. Patellar reflexes of
2+ D. Blood pressure of 142/88 mm Hg
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can cause toxicity, including respiratory depression. A respiratory
rate of 10 breaths/minute is concerning and requires immediate intervention and evaluation.
Loss of reflexes and decreasing urine output are also important toxicity indicators.
13. Which medication should be readily available when a client receives magnesium
sulfate for seizure prophylaxis?
A. Oxytocin B. Methylergonovine C. Calcium gluconate D. Terbutaline
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for clinically significant magnesium toxicity. It
should be readily available when magnesium sulfate is administered.
14. A pregnant client with gestational diabetes asks why glucose control is important.
Poorly controlled maternal hyperglycemia increases the risk of:
