2026/2027 Newest Actual Exam | Complete Questions &
Graded A+ Verified Answers
Secure your official program sign-off and dominate the boards with this ultimate Virtual
ATI (VATI) Green Light Comprehensive Review bundle, featuring verified questions
and answers from Forms A, B, and C. This massive 440+ question master test bank
delivers high-yield coverage across all major Next Generation NCLEX (NGN)
categories, including advanced pharmacology, complex adult medical-surgical
alterations, maternal-newborn emergencies, and pediatric developmental
milestones. Every multi-tier question includes a rigorous clinical rationale designed to
sharpen your critical thinking, eliminate exam anxiety, and guarantee your green light on
the very first try.
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of
heparin. The nurse notes the client's aPTT is 90 seconds (control 30 seconds).
Which action should the nurse take?
A. Increase the heparin infusion rate
B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate
C. Continue the infusion at the current rate
D. Stop the infusion and administer vitamin K
Answer: B
Rationale: The therapeutic aPTT for heparin therapy is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control
value. A control of 30 seconds means the therapeutic range is 45-75 seconds. An aPTT of
90 seconds is above the therapeutic range, indicating a risk of bleeding. The nurse should
decrease the infusion rate and notify the provider. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin,
not heparin.
,2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. The
client's apical pulse is 58 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the medication as prescribed
B. Hold the medication and notify the provider
C. Administer the medication and recheck the pulse in 30 minutes
D. Give half the dose and recheck the pulse in 1 hour
Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60 beats/min in adults.
A pulse of 58 is bradycardic, and administering digoxin could further slow the heart rate,
leading to serious complications. The nurse should hold the dose and notify the provider.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a
thyroidectomy. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Pain at the incision site
B. Hoarseness
C. Tingling around the mouth
D. Slight swelling at the incision
Answer: C
Rationale: Tingling around the mouth (paresthesia) indicates hypocalcemia, which can
occur if the parathyroid glands were accidentally removed or damaged during
thyroidectomy. This can lead to laryngospasm and seizures. Hoarseness and slight swelling
are expected. Pain is expected but should be managed.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new colostomy. Which statement by the
client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I should avoid foods that cause gas."
B. "I can use a pouch deodorant."
C. "I should change the pouch every day."
D. "I need to measure the stoma when applying a new pouch."
,Answer: C
Rationale: Ostomy pouches should be changed every 3-7 days, not daily, unless there is
leakage. Daily changes can irritate the skin. The other statements are correct.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a 6-month-old
infant. Which site is preferred?
A. Deltoid
B. Ventrogluteal
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Dorsogluteal
Answer: C
Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants because it is
well-developed and has fewer major nerves and blood vessels. The deltoid is not well-
developed until later childhood. The ventrogluteal site is used in older children and adults.
The dorsogluteal site is avoided due to risk of sciatic nerve injury.
6. A nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis who has ascites. Which intervention is
most appropriate to promote comfort?
A. Provide a low-sodium diet
B. Position the client in high Fowler's
C. Administer diuretics as prescribed
D. Measure abdominal girth daily
Answer: B
Rationale: High Fowler's position helps relieve dyspnea and discomfort caused by ascites
pressing on the diaphragm. Low-sodium diet, diuretics, and abdominal girth measurement
are important for management but do not directly promote immediate comfort.
, 7. A nurse is teaching a client about a new prescription for phenytoin. Which
statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. "I should take this medication with food."
B. "I should brush my teeth gently and see my dentist regularly."
C. "I can stop taking this medication when I feel better."
D. "I should avoid grapefruit juice."
Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene and regular
dental care are important. It can be taken with food to reduce GI upset. Clients should not
stop the medication abruptly. Grapefruit juice is not a major interaction with phenytoin.
8. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. The nurse notes continuous
bubbling in the water seal chamber. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Clamp the chest tube
B. Assess the chest tube connections
C. Increase the suction pressure
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Answer: B
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak. The first
action is to assess the tubing and connections for loose connections, cracks, or
dislodgement. Clamping the tube is not appropriate without assessment. Increasing
suction or notifying the provider are not the first steps.
9. A nurse is teaching a client about a low-fiber diet. Which food should the client
avoid?
A. White bread
B. Applesauce
C. Brown rice
D. Bananas