Wound Care Final Quiz Questions & Answers
2026/2027 | Remotely Proctored | Latest
Review Guide
1. Which phase of wound healing involves hemostasis and inflammation?
A) Proliferative phase
B) Inflammatory phase
C) Maturation phase
D) Remodeling phase
Answer B: Inflammatory phase
Rationale: The inflammatory phase begins immediately after injury, achieving hemostasis and cleaning
the wound.
2. A wound healing by primary intention is characterized by:
A) Granulation tissue filling the wound
B) Well-approximated edges with minimal tissue loss
C) Extensive scarring
D) Delayed closure
Answer B: Well-approximated edges with minimal tissue loss
Rationale: Primary intention occurs when wound edges are clean and approximated (e.g., surgical
incision).
3. Which type of wound healing occurs when a wound is left open and heals from the bottom up?
A) Primary intention
B) Secondary intention
C) Tertiary intention
D) Delayed primary closure
,Answer B: Secondary intention
Rationale: Secondary intention occurs with tissue loss or infection; wound fills with granulation tissue.
4. A nurse is assessing a wound and notes black, hard, leathery tissue. This is:
A) Slough
B) Eschar
C) Granulation tissue
D) Epithelial tissue
Answer B: Eschar
Rationale: Eschar is necrotic tissue that is black, hard, and leathery; it must be debrided.
5. Which of the following is a sign of wound infection?
A) Pink, moist wound bed
B) Purulent drainage and increased pain
C) Granulation tissue
D) Decreased white blood cell count
Answer B: Purulent drainage and increased pain
Rationale: Purulent drainage, erythema, warmth, pain, and fever indicate infection.
6. The TIME framework for wound bed preparation stands for:
A) Tissue, Infection, Moisture, Edge
B) Tissue, Infection, Moisture, Edge
C) Temperature, Infection, Moisture, Exudate
D) Tissue, Inflammation, Moisture, Edema
Answer B: Tissue, Infection, Moisture, Edge
Rationale: TIME: Tissue management, Infection/inflammation control, Moisture balance, Edge
advancement.
,7. Which dressing is best for a wound with heavy exudate?
A) Transparent film
B) Hydrocolloid
C) Alginate
D) Hydrogel
Answer C: Alginate
Rationale: Alginates are highly absorbent and suitable for heavily exuding wounds.
8. A pressure injury that involves full-thickness skin loss with visible subcutaneous fat is classified
as:
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
Answer C: Stage 3
Rationale: Stage 3 involves full-thickness loss with visible fat but no exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.
9. Which risk assessment tool is commonly used to predict pressure injury risk?
A) Glasgow Coma Scale
B) Braden Scale
C) Morse Fall Scale
D) NIH Stroke Scale
Answer B: Braden Scale
Rationale: The Braden Scale assesses sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and
friction/shear.
10. A nurse is performing a wound culture. Which technique is correct?
, A) Swab the wound edges
B) Clean the wound surface and culture the deepest tissue
C) Culture after applying antibiotic ointment
D) Swab the periwound skin
Answer B: Clean the wound surface and culture the deepest tissue
Rationale: The deepest tissue provides the most accurate culture; avoid surface contaminants.
11. Which of the following is a characteristic of a venous stasis ulcer?
A) Located on the toes
B) Shallow, medial malleolus, with surrounding edema
C) Painful, with absent pulses
D) Punched-out appearance
Answer B: Shallow, medial malleolus, with surrounding edema
Rationale: Venous ulcers are typically shallow, on the medial malleolus, with edema and hemosiderin
staining.
12. The primary treatment for a venous stasis ulcer is:
A) Antibiotics
B) Compression therapy
C) Elevation only
D) Sharp debridement
Answer B: Compression therapy
Rationale: Compression reduces edema and improves venous return; it is the mainstay of treatment.
13. Which of the following is a sign of arterial insufficiency?
A) Warm, edematous extremity
B) Cool, pale extremity with absent pulses
C) Brown discoloration of the skin
2026/2027 | Remotely Proctored | Latest
Review Guide
1. Which phase of wound healing involves hemostasis and inflammation?
A) Proliferative phase
B) Inflammatory phase
C) Maturation phase
D) Remodeling phase
Answer B: Inflammatory phase
Rationale: The inflammatory phase begins immediately after injury, achieving hemostasis and cleaning
the wound.
2. A wound healing by primary intention is characterized by:
A) Granulation tissue filling the wound
B) Well-approximated edges with minimal tissue loss
C) Extensive scarring
D) Delayed closure
Answer B: Well-approximated edges with minimal tissue loss
Rationale: Primary intention occurs when wound edges are clean and approximated (e.g., surgical
incision).
3. Which type of wound healing occurs when a wound is left open and heals from the bottom up?
A) Primary intention
B) Secondary intention
C) Tertiary intention
D) Delayed primary closure
,Answer B: Secondary intention
Rationale: Secondary intention occurs with tissue loss or infection; wound fills with granulation tissue.
4. A nurse is assessing a wound and notes black, hard, leathery tissue. This is:
A) Slough
B) Eschar
C) Granulation tissue
D) Epithelial tissue
Answer B: Eschar
Rationale: Eschar is necrotic tissue that is black, hard, and leathery; it must be debrided.
5. Which of the following is a sign of wound infection?
A) Pink, moist wound bed
B) Purulent drainage and increased pain
C) Granulation tissue
D) Decreased white blood cell count
Answer B: Purulent drainage and increased pain
Rationale: Purulent drainage, erythema, warmth, pain, and fever indicate infection.
6. The TIME framework for wound bed preparation stands for:
A) Tissue, Infection, Moisture, Edge
B) Tissue, Infection, Moisture, Edge
C) Temperature, Infection, Moisture, Exudate
D) Tissue, Inflammation, Moisture, Edema
Answer B: Tissue, Infection, Moisture, Edge
Rationale: TIME: Tissue management, Infection/inflammation control, Moisture balance, Edge
advancement.
,7. Which dressing is best for a wound with heavy exudate?
A) Transparent film
B) Hydrocolloid
C) Alginate
D) Hydrogel
Answer C: Alginate
Rationale: Alginates are highly absorbent and suitable for heavily exuding wounds.
8. A pressure injury that involves full-thickness skin loss with visible subcutaneous fat is classified
as:
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
Answer C: Stage 3
Rationale: Stage 3 involves full-thickness loss with visible fat but no exposed bone, tendon, or muscle.
9. Which risk assessment tool is commonly used to predict pressure injury risk?
A) Glasgow Coma Scale
B) Braden Scale
C) Morse Fall Scale
D) NIH Stroke Scale
Answer B: Braden Scale
Rationale: The Braden Scale assesses sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and
friction/shear.
10. A nurse is performing a wound culture. Which technique is correct?
, A) Swab the wound edges
B) Clean the wound surface and culture the deepest tissue
C) Culture after applying antibiotic ointment
D) Swab the periwound skin
Answer B: Clean the wound surface and culture the deepest tissue
Rationale: The deepest tissue provides the most accurate culture; avoid surface contaminants.
11. Which of the following is a characteristic of a venous stasis ulcer?
A) Located on the toes
B) Shallow, medial malleolus, with surrounding edema
C) Painful, with absent pulses
D) Punched-out appearance
Answer B: Shallow, medial malleolus, with surrounding edema
Rationale: Venous ulcers are typically shallow, on the medial malleolus, with edema and hemosiderin
staining.
12. The primary treatment for a venous stasis ulcer is:
A) Antibiotics
B) Compression therapy
C) Elevation only
D) Sharp debridement
Answer B: Compression therapy
Rationale: Compression reduces edema and improves venous return; it is the mainstay of treatment.
13. Which of the following is a sign of arterial insufficiency?
A) Warm, edematous extremity
B) Cool, pale extremity with absent pulses
C) Brown discoloration of the skin
