• NR 511 CEA EXAM 09/11/2026
NR 511 CEA EXAM CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY | NR
511 COMPREHENSIVE CLINICAL EXAM (CEA) 2026–
2027 QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+
A patient presents to the urgent care with SOB, fatigue, headache, and chest pain. Cardiac work-up is negative
but CBC reveals a hemoglobin of 6.5. Which of the following indices would indicate a potential iron deficiency
anemia?
*MCV 72, MCHC 38
*MCV 112, MCHC 40
*MCV 95, MCHC 34
*MCV 67, MCHC 29 - Correct Answer :MCV 67, MCHC 29
Rationale: Iron deficiency anemia (IDA) is identified as a microcytic, hypochromic anemia. Normal MCV is 80-100
and normal MCHC is 33-37 therefore MCV less than 80 and MCHC less than 33 is considered microcytic
hypochromic and indicative
P 1
, • NR 511 CEA EXAM 09/11/2026
A 49 y.o. M patient, who works in an automotive battery factory, presents to urgent care with three-day onset of
abdominal pain, constipation, anorexia, muscle aches, headache, and excessive fatigue. Considering the
patient's occupation, the provider should include which of the following labs in his work-up?
*C. difficile stool culture
*Hemoglobin A1C
*Vitamin B12/Folate
*Blood lead level - Correct Answer :Blood lead level
Rationale: Factories which produce batteries have a higher risk of workplace exposure to lead. This patient's
symptoms are consistent with an elevated blood lead level and, potentially, lead poisoning.
A patient is taking warfarin, 4 mg daily for atrial fibrillation. The patient's current International Normalized Ratio
(INR) is 5.5 mg/dL. The nurse practitioner would:
*Answer hold the warfarin for 1 day and then recheck in two days.
*decrease the warfarin to 3 mg daily.
*increase the warfarin to 5 mg daily.
*hold the warfarin for 4 days and then recheck the INR. - Correct Answer :Answer hold the warfarin for 1 day
and then recheck in two days.
Rationale: As warfarin has a long half life, it typically takes several days to see meaningful change in levels of
dose change. The INR of 5.5 is supratherapeutic and must be reduced for the risk of bleeding. Of these options,
the only one that offers a reduction/cessation and and a recheck of the level is to hold the warfarin for one day
and recheck the INR in 2 days.
Your patient presents with painless lymph node swelling, weight loss, night sweats, and asks what is wrong with
him. Which of the following represents a most appropriate intervention to confirm a diagnosis of lymphoma?
*Order a CBC and TSH
*Consult pulmonology
*Order a core needle biopsy
*Examine the patient - Correct Answer :Order a core needle biopsy
Rationale: This question is asking for an intervention. Although examining the patient is useful, it is an evaluation
tool, as is ordering routine lab work. Pulmonology is not an appropriate consultation for this patient; rather,
hematology or oncology would be best suited to evaluate and work up this patient. A diagnostic needle biopsy is
the most definitive intervention to gain a diagnosis for a suspected lymphoma.
P 2
, • NR 511 CEA EXAM 09/11/2026
Your patient arrives the urgent care complaining of a swollen throat and vocal changes. Which of the following
statements made by the patient brings an index of suspicion of angioedema?
*This seems to be getting better already getting out of the cold
*I have been taking my lisinopril for the past week as prescribed
*I have never had this happen before
*I do not take any ibuprofen since it gives me an upset stomach - Correct Answer :I have been taking my
lisinopril for the past week as prescribed
Rationale: Use of ACE Inhibitors and NSAIDS is a common precipitating factor in angioedema. The rest do not
suggest any relationship to angioedema.
A 35-year-old woman presents with a new, darkly pigmented lesion on her back that she noticed a few months
ago. The lesion is asymmetrical, has irregular borders, and varies in color. What is the most appropriate next step
in management?
*Perform a shave biopsy
*Reassure the patient and advise regular monitoring
*Perform an excisional biopsy
*Perform a punch biopsy - Correct Answer :Perform an excisional biopsy
Rationale: When a healthcare provider needs to definitively diagnose or rule out a suspected condition, such as a
skin lesion or tumor, an excisional biopsy allows for the entire lesion or a significant portion of it to be removed
and examined under a microscope by a pathologist.
An adult daycare worker presents with severe itching on the arms and around the arms and wrists. The patient's
skin is mildly excoriated from scratching. Microscopic examination of a skin reveals scabies. The treatment of
choice for the patient would be?
*triamcinolone
*permethrin
*ketocanozale
*cetirizine - Correct Answer :permethrin
Rationale: Permethrin is commonly prescribed for the treatment of scabies, a contagious skin infestation caused
by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. Permethrin is a synthetic pyrethroid insecticide that works by paralyzing and killing
the mites and their eggs upon contact. It disrupts the nervous system of the mites, leading to their death.
P 3
, • NR 511 CEA EXAM 09/11/2026
An adult photography developer presents with two small vesicles on his right middle finger, proximal to the nail
bed. He says he wears gloves when he works with photography chemicals. He admits to chewing his fingers, and
notes that this is his fourth episode. Previous cultures have been negative. The MOST likely diagnosis is:
*Herpetic whitlow
*Impetigo
*Atopic dermatitis
*Habit tic - Correct Answer :Herpetic whitlow
Rationale: The primary symptom of herpetic whitlow is the presence of painful, small, fluid-filled blisters or ulcers
on the fingers or thumbs. These lesions can be localized to one finger or involve multiple digits.
Using the rule of palms, a patient with burn surface equivalent to 20 of the patient's palms would be how many
percent body surface area?
*10 percent
*20 percent
*15 percent
*40 percent - Correct Answer :20 percent
Rationale: each palm is equivalent to 1% of the patient's body surface area
In treating a pregnant female with migraine headaches, which of the following drugs would be contraindicated?
*Ergotamine tartrate (Migergot)
*Sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex)
*Frovatriptan (Frova)
*Amitriptyline (Elavil) - Correct Answer :Ergotamine tartrate (Migergot)
Rationale: Ergotamine tartrate is a medication commonly used to treat acute migraine attacks. It works by
constricting blood vessels in the brain, which helps alleviate migraine symptoms. However, its use in pregnancy is
associated with significant risks and is contraindicated. Ergotamine stimulates uterine contractions, which can
lead to miscarriage, preterm labor, and other complications related to uterine activity.
P 4
NR 511 CEA EXAM CHAMBERLAIN UNIVERSITY | NR
511 COMPREHENSIVE CLINICAL EXAM (CEA) 2026–
2027 QUESTIONS AND 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+
A patient presents to the urgent care with SOB, fatigue, headache, and chest pain. Cardiac work-up is negative
but CBC reveals a hemoglobin of 6.5. Which of the following indices would indicate a potential iron deficiency
anemia?
*MCV 72, MCHC 38
*MCV 112, MCHC 40
*MCV 95, MCHC 34
*MCV 67, MCHC 29 - Correct Answer :MCV 67, MCHC 29
Rationale: Iron deficiency anemia (IDA) is identified as a microcytic, hypochromic anemia. Normal MCV is 80-100
and normal MCHC is 33-37 therefore MCV less than 80 and MCHC less than 33 is considered microcytic
hypochromic and indicative
P 1
, • NR 511 CEA EXAM 09/11/2026
A 49 y.o. M patient, who works in an automotive battery factory, presents to urgent care with three-day onset of
abdominal pain, constipation, anorexia, muscle aches, headache, and excessive fatigue. Considering the
patient's occupation, the provider should include which of the following labs in his work-up?
*C. difficile stool culture
*Hemoglobin A1C
*Vitamin B12/Folate
*Blood lead level - Correct Answer :Blood lead level
Rationale: Factories which produce batteries have a higher risk of workplace exposure to lead. This patient's
symptoms are consistent with an elevated blood lead level and, potentially, lead poisoning.
A patient is taking warfarin, 4 mg daily for atrial fibrillation. The patient's current International Normalized Ratio
(INR) is 5.5 mg/dL. The nurse practitioner would:
*Answer hold the warfarin for 1 day and then recheck in two days.
*decrease the warfarin to 3 mg daily.
*increase the warfarin to 5 mg daily.
*hold the warfarin for 4 days and then recheck the INR. - Correct Answer :Answer hold the warfarin for 1 day
and then recheck in two days.
Rationale: As warfarin has a long half life, it typically takes several days to see meaningful change in levels of
dose change. The INR of 5.5 is supratherapeutic and must be reduced for the risk of bleeding. Of these options,
the only one that offers a reduction/cessation and and a recheck of the level is to hold the warfarin for one day
and recheck the INR in 2 days.
Your patient presents with painless lymph node swelling, weight loss, night sweats, and asks what is wrong with
him. Which of the following represents a most appropriate intervention to confirm a diagnosis of lymphoma?
*Order a CBC and TSH
*Consult pulmonology
*Order a core needle biopsy
*Examine the patient - Correct Answer :Order a core needle biopsy
Rationale: This question is asking for an intervention. Although examining the patient is useful, it is an evaluation
tool, as is ordering routine lab work. Pulmonology is not an appropriate consultation for this patient; rather,
hematology or oncology would be best suited to evaluate and work up this patient. A diagnostic needle biopsy is
the most definitive intervention to gain a diagnosis for a suspected lymphoma.
P 2
, • NR 511 CEA EXAM 09/11/2026
Your patient arrives the urgent care complaining of a swollen throat and vocal changes. Which of the following
statements made by the patient brings an index of suspicion of angioedema?
*This seems to be getting better already getting out of the cold
*I have been taking my lisinopril for the past week as prescribed
*I have never had this happen before
*I do not take any ibuprofen since it gives me an upset stomach - Correct Answer :I have been taking my
lisinopril for the past week as prescribed
Rationale: Use of ACE Inhibitors and NSAIDS is a common precipitating factor in angioedema. The rest do not
suggest any relationship to angioedema.
A 35-year-old woman presents with a new, darkly pigmented lesion on her back that she noticed a few months
ago. The lesion is asymmetrical, has irregular borders, and varies in color. What is the most appropriate next step
in management?
*Perform a shave biopsy
*Reassure the patient and advise regular monitoring
*Perform an excisional biopsy
*Perform a punch biopsy - Correct Answer :Perform an excisional biopsy
Rationale: When a healthcare provider needs to definitively diagnose or rule out a suspected condition, such as a
skin lesion or tumor, an excisional biopsy allows for the entire lesion or a significant portion of it to be removed
and examined under a microscope by a pathologist.
An adult daycare worker presents with severe itching on the arms and around the arms and wrists. The patient's
skin is mildly excoriated from scratching. Microscopic examination of a skin reveals scabies. The treatment of
choice for the patient would be?
*triamcinolone
*permethrin
*ketocanozale
*cetirizine - Correct Answer :permethrin
Rationale: Permethrin is commonly prescribed for the treatment of scabies, a contagious skin infestation caused
by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. Permethrin is a synthetic pyrethroid insecticide that works by paralyzing and killing
the mites and their eggs upon contact. It disrupts the nervous system of the mites, leading to their death.
P 3
, • NR 511 CEA EXAM 09/11/2026
An adult photography developer presents with two small vesicles on his right middle finger, proximal to the nail
bed. He says he wears gloves when he works with photography chemicals. He admits to chewing his fingers, and
notes that this is his fourth episode. Previous cultures have been negative. The MOST likely diagnosis is:
*Herpetic whitlow
*Impetigo
*Atopic dermatitis
*Habit tic - Correct Answer :Herpetic whitlow
Rationale: The primary symptom of herpetic whitlow is the presence of painful, small, fluid-filled blisters or ulcers
on the fingers or thumbs. These lesions can be localized to one finger or involve multiple digits.
Using the rule of palms, a patient with burn surface equivalent to 20 of the patient's palms would be how many
percent body surface area?
*10 percent
*20 percent
*15 percent
*40 percent - Correct Answer :20 percent
Rationale: each palm is equivalent to 1% of the patient's body surface area
In treating a pregnant female with migraine headaches, which of the following drugs would be contraindicated?
*Ergotamine tartrate (Migergot)
*Sumatriptan succinate (Imitrex)
*Frovatriptan (Frova)
*Amitriptyline (Elavil) - Correct Answer :Ergotamine tartrate (Migergot)
Rationale: Ergotamine tartrate is a medication commonly used to treat acute migraine attacks. It works by
constricting blood vessels in the brain, which helps alleviate migraine symptoms. However, its use in pregnancy is
associated with significant risks and is contraindicated. Ergotamine stimulates uterine contractions, which can
lead to miscarriage, preterm labor, and other complications related to uterine activity.
P 4
