• ANCC PMHNP Exam 09/11/2026
ANCC PMHNP PSYCH-MENTAL HEALTH NP LATEST
TEST 1 ,2,& 3 EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS| LATEST
UPDATE ALREADY GRADED A+| GUARANTEED
PASS
.
2.
A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife
and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago.
Vital signs are: temperature, 100° F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam
(Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?
A) Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
B) Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
C) Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
D) Health seeking behaviors related to personal crisis. –
P 1
, • ANCC PMHNP Exam 09/11/2026
Correct Answer :The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the
client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Maintaining client safety related to (A) should be
addressed after giving the client Ativan for elevated vital signs secondary to alcohol withdrawal. (C and D) can be
addressed when immediate needs for safety are met.
Correct Answer(s): B
3.
The charge nurse is collaborating with the nursing staff about the plan of care for a client who is very depressed.
What is the most important intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after the client's admission to
the unit?
A) Monitor appetite and observe intake at meals.
B) Maintain safety in the client's milieu.
C) Provide ongoing, supportive contact.
D) Encourage participation in activities.
- Correct Answer :The most important reason for closely observing a depressed client immediately after
admission is to maintain safety (B), since suicide is a risk with depression. (A, C, and D) are all important
interventions, but safety is the priority.
Correct Answer(s): B
4.
A 38-year-old female client is admitted with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. When her tray is brought to
her, she refuses to eat and tells the nurse, "I know you are trying to poison me with that food." Which response
is most appropriate for the nurse to make?
A) I'll leave your tray here. I am available if you need anything else.
B) You're not being poisoned. Why do you think someone is trying to poison you?
C) No one on this unit has ever died from poisoning. You're safe here.
D) I will talk to your healthcare provider about the possibility of changing your diet. –
P 2
, • ANCC PMHNP Exam 09/11/2026
Correct Answer :(A) is the best choice cited. The nurse does not argue with the client nor demand that she eat,
but offers support by agreeing to "be there if needed", e.g., to warm the food. (B and C) are arguing with the
client's delusions, and (B) asks "why" which is usually not a good question for a psychotic client. (D) has nothing
to do with the actual problem; i.e., the problem is not the diet (she thinks any food given to her is poisoned.)
Correct Answer(s): A
5.
A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and
drowsiness. What action should the nurse take?
A) Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
B) Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
C) Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
D) Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug. –
Correct Answer :Early side effects of lithium carbonate (occurring with serum lithium levels below 2.0 mEq per
liter) generally follow a progressive pattern beginning with diarrhea, vomiting, drowsiness, and muscular
weakness. At higher levels, ataxia, tinnitus, blurred vision, and large dilute urine output may occur. (B) is the best
choice. Although these are expected symptoms, the healthcare provider should be notified prior to the next
administration of the drug. (A, C, and D) would not reflect good nursing judgment.
Correct Answer(s): B
6.
The parents of a 14-year-old boy bring their son to the hospital. He is lethargic, but responsive. The mother
states, "I think he took some of my pain pills." During initial assessment of the teenager, what information is
most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?
A) If he has seemed depressed recently.
B) If a drug overdose has ever occurred before.
C) If he might have taken any other drugs.
D) If he has a desire to quit taking drugs. –
P 3
, • ANCC PMHNP Exam 09/11/2026
Correct Answer :Knowledge of all substances taken (C) will guide further treatment, such as administration of
antagonists, so obtaining this information has the highest priority. (A and B) are also valuable in planning
treatment. (D) is not appropriate during the acute management of a drug overdose.
Correct Answer(s): C
7.
The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, "What exactly is schizophrenia? Is
my husband all right?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this family member?
A) It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
B) It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
C) Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
D) I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.
- Correct Answer :The nurse should answer the client's question with factual information and explain that
schizophrenia is a chemical imbalance in the brain (B). (A) is a therapeutic response but does not answer the
question, and may be an appropriate response after the nurse answers the question asked. Although (C) is likely
true to some degree, it is also true that some clients continue to have disorganized thinking even with
antipsychotic medications. Referring the spouse to the psychologist (D) is avoiding the issue; the nurse can and
should answer the question.
Correct Answer(s): B
8.
The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4
to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client
stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?
A) Excessive work activity.
B) Decreased need for sleep.
C) Medication management.
D) Inflated self-esteem. –
P 4
ANCC PMHNP PSYCH-MENTAL HEALTH NP LATEST
TEST 1 ,2,& 3 EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
DETAILED RATIONALES ANSWERS| LATEST
UPDATE ALREADY GRADED A+| GUARANTEED
PASS
.
2.
A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife
and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago.
Vital signs are: temperature, 100° F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam
(Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?
A) Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
B) Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
C) Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
D) Health seeking behaviors related to personal crisis. –
P 1
, • ANCC PMHNP Exam 09/11/2026
Correct Answer :The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the
client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Maintaining client safety related to (A) should be
addressed after giving the client Ativan for elevated vital signs secondary to alcohol withdrawal. (C and D) can be
addressed when immediate needs for safety are met.
Correct Answer(s): B
3.
The charge nurse is collaborating with the nursing staff about the plan of care for a client who is very depressed.
What is the most important intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after the client's admission to
the unit?
A) Monitor appetite and observe intake at meals.
B) Maintain safety in the client's milieu.
C) Provide ongoing, supportive contact.
D) Encourage participation in activities.
- Correct Answer :The most important reason for closely observing a depressed client immediately after
admission is to maintain safety (B), since suicide is a risk with depression. (A, C, and D) are all important
interventions, but safety is the priority.
Correct Answer(s): B
4.
A 38-year-old female client is admitted with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. When her tray is brought to
her, she refuses to eat and tells the nurse, "I know you are trying to poison me with that food." Which response
is most appropriate for the nurse to make?
A) I'll leave your tray here. I am available if you need anything else.
B) You're not being poisoned. Why do you think someone is trying to poison you?
C) No one on this unit has ever died from poisoning. You're safe here.
D) I will talk to your healthcare provider about the possibility of changing your diet. –
P 2
, • ANCC PMHNP Exam 09/11/2026
Correct Answer :(A) is the best choice cited. The nurse does not argue with the client nor demand that she eat,
but offers support by agreeing to "be there if needed", e.g., to warm the food. (B and C) are arguing with the
client's delusions, and (B) asks "why" which is usually not a good question for a psychotic client. (D) has nothing
to do with the actual problem; i.e., the problem is not the diet (she thinks any food given to her is poisoned.)
Correct Answer(s): A
5.
A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and
drowsiness. What action should the nurse take?
A) Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
B) Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
C) Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
D) Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug. –
Correct Answer :Early side effects of lithium carbonate (occurring with serum lithium levels below 2.0 mEq per
liter) generally follow a progressive pattern beginning with diarrhea, vomiting, drowsiness, and muscular
weakness. At higher levels, ataxia, tinnitus, blurred vision, and large dilute urine output may occur. (B) is the best
choice. Although these are expected symptoms, the healthcare provider should be notified prior to the next
administration of the drug. (A, C, and D) would not reflect good nursing judgment.
Correct Answer(s): B
6.
The parents of a 14-year-old boy bring their son to the hospital. He is lethargic, but responsive. The mother
states, "I think he took some of my pain pills." During initial assessment of the teenager, what information is
most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?
A) If he has seemed depressed recently.
B) If a drug overdose has ever occurred before.
C) If he might have taken any other drugs.
D) If he has a desire to quit taking drugs. –
P 3
, • ANCC PMHNP Exam 09/11/2026
Correct Answer :Knowledge of all substances taken (C) will guide further treatment, such as administration of
antagonists, so obtaining this information has the highest priority. (A and B) are also valuable in planning
treatment. (D) is not appropriate during the acute management of a drug overdose.
Correct Answer(s): C
7.
The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, "What exactly is schizophrenia? Is
my husband all right?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this family member?
A) It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
B) It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
C) Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
D) I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.
- Correct Answer :The nurse should answer the client's question with factual information and explain that
schizophrenia is a chemical imbalance in the brain (B). (A) is a therapeutic response but does not answer the
question, and may be an appropriate response after the nurse answers the question asked. Although (C) is likely
true to some degree, it is also true that some clients continue to have disorganized thinking even with
antipsychotic medications. Referring the spouse to the psychologist (D) is avoiding the issue; the nurse can and
should answer the question.
Correct Answer(s): B
8.
The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4
to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client
stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?
A) Excessive work activity.
B) Decreased need for sleep.
C) Medication management.
D) Inflated self-esteem. –
P 4
