ATI COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE
TEST B V1 Q&A WITH
RATIONALES 2026/2027
149 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
ATI COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE TEST B V1 Q&A WITH RATIONALES 2026/2027. It contains 149 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 149 Questions
Foundations - Application - ATI Comprehensive B V1 Q&a WITH Rationales 2026/2027 Comprehensive
Nursing Ati-style Undergraduate YEAR 4 / Pre-licensure BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-25 Receiving, Medication, Finding, Blood, Immediate
Safety AND Infection Control 26-50 Finding, Indicates, Laboratory, Effective, Receiving
Health Promotion AND 51-75 Prescribed, Finding, Infusion, Continuous, Heparin
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 76-100 Indicates, Finding, Prescribed, Acute, Digoxin
Basic CARE AND Comfort 101-125 Finding, Indicates, Immediate, Prescribed, Requires
Pharmacological Therapies 126-149 Finding, Indicates, Laboratory, Receiving, Transfusion
TOTAL 149 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving
oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse notes a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
and oxygen saturation of 92%. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Continue current oxygen therapy and B. Increase oxygen to 6 L/min to improve
reassess in 30 minutes. saturation.
C. Decrease oxygen to 2 L/min and monitor D. Prepare for intubation due to
for respiratory depression. hypoventilation.
Correct: A - Continue current oxygen therapy and reassess in 30 minutes.
Rationale:In COPD, patients may have a hypoxic drive; however, a respiratory rate of 10 and
SpO2 92% indicate adequate oxygenation and ventilation for this client. Increasing oxygen
could suppress respiratory drive, while decreasing may cause hypoxia. Intubation is not
indicated. Continuous monitoring and reassessment are appropriate.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Increasing oxygen in COPD can worsen hypercapnia and respiratory depression.
C. Decreasing oxygen may lead to severe hypoxemia; current saturation is acceptable.
D. Intubation is premature without signs of respiratory failure or acidosis.
Reference: Lewis, S.L., et al. (2026). Medical-Surgical Nursing, 11th Ed., Ch. 28.
Q2.
A postpartum client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia has a respiratory rate
of 10 breaths/min and absent deep tendon reflexes. Which medication should the nurse
prepare to administer?
A. Calcium gluconate B. Naloxone
C. Protamine sulfate D. Flumazenil
Correct: A - Calcium gluconate
Rationale:Magnesium sulfate toxicity is treated with calcium gluconate, which antagonizes
the effects of magnesium at the neuromuscular junction. Naloxone reverses opioids,
protamine reverses heparin, and flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines-none are appropriate
for magnesium toxicity.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Naloxone is for opioid overdose, not magnesium toxicity.
C. Protamine sulfate is used for heparin reversal.
D. Flumazenil is for benzodiazepine reversal.
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
Reference: Lowdermilk, D.L., et al. (2026). Maternity & Women's Health Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 32.
Q3.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which
finding would most indicate a need for immediate intervention?
A. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L B. Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL
C. Phosphorus 4.5 mg/dL D. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
Correct: A - Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
Rationale:Potassium of 5.2 mEq/L is above normal and in a client with CKD can rapidly lead
to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Hemoglobin 10.5 is mildly anemic but not emergent;
phosphorus and calcium are within normal limits. Immediate intervention is needed for
hyperkalemia.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Mild anemia is expected in CKD and does not require immediate intervention.
C. Phosphorus is within normal range (normal 2.5-4.5 mg/dL).
D. Calcium is within normal range (normal 8.5-10.5 mg/dL).
Reference: Lewis, S.L., et al. (2026). Medical-Surgical Nursing, 11th Ed., Ch. 45.
Q4.
A client with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. Which laboratory value requires
immediate notification to the provider?
A. White blood cell count 2,800/mm³ B. Absolute neutrophil count 1,500/mm³
C. Platelet count 150,000/mm³ D. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
Correct: A - White blood cell count 2,800/mm³
Rationale:Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis; an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) below
500/mm³ or a WBC below 3,000/mm³ requires immediate discontinuation and notification. An
ANC of 1,500 is borderline but not emergent; platelets and hemoglobin are normal.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. ANC of 1,500 is above the critical threshold of 500, though monitoring is needed.
C. Platelets are normal (150,000-450,000).
D. Hemoglobin is normal for a female (12-15 g/dL).
Reference: Varcarolis, E.M., & Fosbre, C.D. (2026). Essentials of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing, 5th
Ed., Ch. 22.
Page 4
TEST B V1 Q&A WITH
RATIONALES 2026/2027
149 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
ATI COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE TEST B V1 Q&A WITH RATIONALES 2026/2027. It contains 149 carefully
selected questions that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is
accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology,
pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 149 Questions
Foundations - Application - ATI Comprehensive B V1 Q&a WITH Rationales 2026/2027 Comprehensive
Nursing Ati-style Undergraduate YEAR 4 / Pre-licensure BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-25 Receiving, Medication, Finding, Blood, Immediate
Safety AND Infection Control 26-50 Finding, Indicates, Laboratory, Effective, Receiving
Health Promotion AND 51-75 Prescribed, Finding, Infusion, Continuous, Heparin
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 76-100 Indicates, Finding, Prescribed, Acute, Digoxin
Basic CARE AND Comfort 101-125 Finding, Indicates, Immediate, Prescribed, Requires
Pharmacological Therapies 126-149 Finding, Indicates, Laboratory, Receiving, Transfusion
TOTAL 149 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving
oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse notes a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min
and oxygen saturation of 92%. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Continue current oxygen therapy and B. Increase oxygen to 6 L/min to improve
reassess in 30 minutes. saturation.
C. Decrease oxygen to 2 L/min and monitor D. Prepare for intubation due to
for respiratory depression. hypoventilation.
Correct: A - Continue current oxygen therapy and reassess in 30 minutes.
Rationale:In COPD, patients may have a hypoxic drive; however, a respiratory rate of 10 and
SpO2 92% indicate adequate oxygenation and ventilation for this client. Increasing oxygen
could suppress respiratory drive, while decreasing may cause hypoxia. Intubation is not
indicated. Continuous monitoring and reassessment are appropriate.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Increasing oxygen in COPD can worsen hypercapnia and respiratory depression.
C. Decreasing oxygen may lead to severe hypoxemia; current saturation is acceptable.
D. Intubation is premature without signs of respiratory failure or acidosis.
Reference: Lewis, S.L., et al. (2026). Medical-Surgical Nursing, 11th Ed., Ch. 28.
Q2.
A postpartum client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia has a respiratory rate
of 10 breaths/min and absent deep tendon reflexes. Which medication should the nurse
prepare to administer?
A. Calcium gluconate B. Naloxone
C. Protamine sulfate D. Flumazenil
Correct: A - Calcium gluconate
Rationale:Magnesium sulfate toxicity is treated with calcium gluconate, which antagonizes
the effects of magnesium at the neuromuscular junction. Naloxone reverses opioids,
protamine reverses heparin, and flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines-none are appropriate
for magnesium toxicity.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Naloxone is for opioid overdose, not magnesium toxicity.
C. Protamine sulfate is used for heparin reversal.
D. Flumazenil is for benzodiazepine reversal.
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
Reference: Lowdermilk, D.L., et al. (2026). Maternity & Women's Health Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 32.
Q3.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which
finding would most indicate a need for immediate intervention?
A. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L B. Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL
C. Phosphorus 4.5 mg/dL D. Calcium 9.0 mg/dL
Correct: A - Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
Rationale:Potassium of 5.2 mEq/L is above normal and in a client with CKD can rapidly lead
to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Hemoglobin 10.5 is mildly anemic but not emergent;
phosphorus and calcium are within normal limits. Immediate intervention is needed for
hyperkalemia.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. Mild anemia is expected in CKD and does not require immediate intervention.
C. Phosphorus is within normal range (normal 2.5-4.5 mg/dL).
D. Calcium is within normal range (normal 8.5-10.5 mg/dL).
Reference: Lewis, S.L., et al. (2026). Medical-Surgical Nursing, 11th Ed., Ch. 45.
Q4.
A client with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. Which laboratory value requires
immediate notification to the provider?
A. White blood cell count 2,800/mm³ B. Absolute neutrophil count 1,500/mm³
C. Platelet count 150,000/mm³ D. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
Correct: A - White blood cell count 2,800/mm³
Rationale:Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis; an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) below
500/mm³ or a WBC below 3,000/mm³ requires immediate discontinuation and notification. An
ANC of 1,500 is borderline but not emergent; platelets and hemoglobin are normal.
Why the other answers are wrong:
B. ANC of 1,500 is above the critical threshold of 500, though monitoring is needed.
C. Platelets are normal (150,000-450,000).
D. Hemoglobin is normal for a female (12-15 g/dL).
Reference: Varcarolis, E.M., & Fosbre, C.D. (2026). Essentials of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing, 5th
Ed., Ch. 22.
Page 4
