ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR
RETAKE EXAM WITH 100% VERIFIED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 2026/2027
140 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR RETAKE EXAM WITH 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES 2026/2027. It contains 140 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content
and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains
the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 140 Questions
Foundations - Application - ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Retake WITH 100 WITH Rationales
2026/2027 Nursing Comprehensive Predictor Undergraduate YEAR 4 / Pre-licensure BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-24 Finding, Receiving, Prescribed, Appropriate, Continuous
Safety AND Infection Control 25-48 Indicates, Finding, Prescribed, Receiving, Infusion
Health Promotion AND 49-72 Finding, Indicates, Laboratory, Medication, Caring
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 73-96 Finding, Indicates, Medication, Prescribed, Receiving
Basic CARE AND Comfort 97-120 Laboratory, Finding, Indicates, Prescribed, Immediate
Pharmacological Therapies 121-140 Finding, Indicates, Teaching, Reviewing, Immediate
TOTAL 140 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A client with heart failure is receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. The nurse
notes a new onset of atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. Which action is
most appropriate?
A. Continue the infusion and administer a B. Stop the infusion immediately and
beta blocker as prescribed. prepare to administer amiodarone.
C. Reduce the infusion rate by half and D. Increase the infusion rate to maintain
reassess in 30 minutes. cardiac output.
Correct: B - Stop the infusion immediately and prepare to administer amiodarone.
Rationale:Milrinone, a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, can precipitate or exacerbate atrial
arrhythmias. The nurse should stop the infusion and treat the arrhythmia, as continued use
may worsen the dysrhythmia. Beta blockers are contraindicated in acute decompensated
heart failure due to negative inotropic effects. Reducing the rate does not address the
ongoing proarrhythmic effect.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Beta blockers are contraindicated in acute decompensated heart failure and would not
address the milrinone-induced arrhythmia.
C. Reducing the rate is insufficient; the drug must be stopped to prevent further arrhythmia.
D. Increasing the rate would exacerbate the arrhythmia and is unsafe.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 24.
Q2.
A client at 38 weeks gestation presents with uterine contractions every 3 minutes. The
nurse notes a sudden painless gush of clear fluid. Which assessment finding is most
critical to report immediately?
A. Fetal heart rate baseline of 140 bpm with B. Maternal temperature of 38.1°C
moderate variability. (100.6°F).
C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm with 80% D. Uterine contractions increasing in
effacement. intensity.
Correct: B - Maternal temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F).
Rationale:A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) after rupture of membranes indicates possible
chorioamnionitis, which requires immediate intervention to prevent maternal and neonatal
sepsis. The other findings are normal in active labor.
Why the other answers are wrong:
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
A. This fetal heart rate pattern is reassuring and not a cause for immediate concern.
C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm is consistent with active labor.
D. Increasing contraction intensity is expected in labor.
Reference: Lowdermilk, D.L. et al. (2026). Maternity & Women's Health Care, 13th Ed., Ch. 22.
Q3.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client with chronic kidney disease. Which
finding is most consistent with stage 4 disease?
A. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 45 B. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 25
mL/min/1.73m² and serum creatinine of 1.8 mL/min/1.73m² and serum phosphorus of
mg/dL. 5.5 mg/dL.
C. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 75 D. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 15
mL/min/1.73m² and blood urea nitrogen of mL/min/1.73m² and serum potassium of 6.0
20 mg/dL. mEq/L.
Correct: B - Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 25 mL/min/1.73m² and serum phosphorus
of 5.5 mg/dL.
Rationale:Stage 4 CKD is defined as GFR 15-29 mL/min/1.73m². The elevated phosphorus
is a common finding due to decreased excretion. Option A is stage 3, option C is stage 2, and
option D is stage 5.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. GFR of 45 mL/min/1.73m² indicates stage 3, not stage 4.
C. GFR of 75 mL/min/1.73m² indicates stage 2, and BUN is normal.
D. GFR of 15 mL/min/1.73m² indicates stage 5, not stage 4.
Reference: Lewis, S.L. et al. (2027). Medical-Surgical Nursing, 12th Ed., Ch. 47.
Q4.
Which intervention is most likely to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia in a client
receiving mechanical ventilation?
A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 B. Administer a proton pump inhibitor daily.
degrees.
C. Change the ventilator circuit every 24 D. Provide oral care with chlorhexidine
hours. every 12 hours.
Correct: A - Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
Rationale:Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is a core evidence-based
intervention to prevent aspiration and VAP. Oral care with chlorhexidine is also recommended,
but head elevation is the most effective single measure. PPI use may increase pneumonia
risk, and circuit changes are no longer recommended routinely.
Why the other answers are wrong:
Page 4
RETAKE EXAM WITH 100% VERIFIED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES 2026/2027
140 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR RETAKE EXAM WITH 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES 2026/2027. It contains 140 carefully selected questions that reflect the most current exam content
and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a detailed rationale that explains
the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 140 Questions
Foundations - Application - ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Retake WITH 100 WITH Rationales
2026/2027 Nursing Comprehensive Predictor Undergraduate YEAR 4 / Pre-licensure BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Content Area Questions Key Topics
Management OF CARE 1-24 Finding, Receiving, Prescribed, Appropriate, Continuous
Safety AND Infection Control 25-48 Indicates, Finding, Prescribed, Receiving, Infusion
Health Promotion AND 49-72 Finding, Indicates, Laboratory, Medication, Caring
Maintenance
Psychosocial Integrity 73-96 Finding, Indicates, Medication, Prescribed, Receiving
Basic CARE AND Comfort 97-120 Laboratory, Finding, Indicates, Prescribed, Immediate
Pharmacological Therapies 121-140 Finding, Indicates, Teaching, Reviewing, Immediate
TOTAL 140 All questions include answers and detailed rationales
,Section A - Management OF CARE
Q1.
A client with heart failure is receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. The nurse
notes a new onset of atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. Which action is
most appropriate?
A. Continue the infusion and administer a B. Stop the infusion immediately and
beta blocker as prescribed. prepare to administer amiodarone.
C. Reduce the infusion rate by half and D. Increase the infusion rate to maintain
reassess in 30 minutes. cardiac output.
Correct: B - Stop the infusion immediately and prepare to administer amiodarone.
Rationale:Milrinone, a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, can precipitate or exacerbate atrial
arrhythmias. The nurse should stop the infusion and treat the arrhythmia, as continued use
may worsen the dysrhythmia. Beta blockers are contraindicated in acute decompensated
heart failure due to negative inotropic effects. Reducing the rate does not address the
ongoing proarrhythmic effect.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. Beta blockers are contraindicated in acute decompensated heart failure and would not
address the milrinone-induced arrhythmia.
C. Reducing the rate is insufficient; the drug must be stopped to prevent further arrhythmia.
D. Increasing the rate would exacerbate the arrhythmia and is unsafe.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 24.
Q2.
A client at 38 weeks gestation presents with uterine contractions every 3 minutes. The
nurse notes a sudden painless gush of clear fluid. Which assessment finding is most
critical to report immediately?
A. Fetal heart rate baseline of 140 bpm with B. Maternal temperature of 38.1°C
moderate variability. (100.6°F).
C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm with 80% D. Uterine contractions increasing in
effacement. intensity.
Correct: B - Maternal temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F).
Rationale:A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) after rupture of membranes indicates possible
chorioamnionitis, which requires immediate intervention to prevent maternal and neonatal
sepsis. The other findings are normal in active labor.
Why the other answers are wrong:
Page 3
, Section A - Management OF CARE
A. This fetal heart rate pattern is reassuring and not a cause for immediate concern.
C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm is consistent with active labor.
D. Increasing contraction intensity is expected in labor.
Reference: Lowdermilk, D.L. et al. (2026). Maternity & Women's Health Care, 13th Ed., Ch. 22.
Q3.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client with chronic kidney disease. Which
finding is most consistent with stage 4 disease?
A. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 45 B. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 25
mL/min/1.73m² and serum creatinine of 1.8 mL/min/1.73m² and serum phosphorus of
mg/dL. 5.5 mg/dL.
C. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 75 D. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 15
mL/min/1.73m² and blood urea nitrogen of mL/min/1.73m² and serum potassium of 6.0
20 mg/dL. mEq/L.
Correct: B - Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 25 mL/min/1.73m² and serum phosphorus
of 5.5 mg/dL.
Rationale:Stage 4 CKD is defined as GFR 15-29 mL/min/1.73m². The elevated phosphorus
is a common finding due to decreased excretion. Option A is stage 3, option C is stage 2, and
option D is stage 5.
Why the other answers are wrong:
A. GFR of 45 mL/min/1.73m² indicates stage 3, not stage 4.
C. GFR of 75 mL/min/1.73m² indicates stage 2, and BUN is normal.
D. GFR of 15 mL/min/1.73m² indicates stage 5, not stage 4.
Reference: Lewis, S.L. et al. (2027). Medical-Surgical Nursing, 12th Ed., Ch. 47.
Q4.
Which intervention is most likely to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia in a client
receiving mechanical ventilation?
A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 B. Administer a proton pump inhibitor daily.
degrees.
C. Change the ventilator circuit every 24 D. Provide oral care with chlorhexidine
hours. every 12 hours.
Correct: A - Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
Rationale:Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is a core evidence-based
intervention to prevent aspiration and VAP. Oral care with chlorhexidine is also recommended,
but head elevation is the most effective single measure. PPI use may increase pneumonia
risk, and circuit changes are no longer recommended routinely.
Why the other answers are wrong:
Page 4
