NURSING EXAM PREP
NUR 209 EXAM 1
MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING II
2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS
A+
(GUARANTEED PASS!!)
Aligned to Fortis College NUR209 Medical Surgical Nursing II Objectives • Intermediate Nursing Course Level
A+ QUESTIONS 5 SECTIONS 100%
VERIFIED COMPLETE RATIONALES
CATEGORIES
Cardiovascular Disorders (Heart Failure, ACS/MI, Dysrhythmias, Valvular Disease)
Respiratory Disorders (COPD, Asthma, Pneumonia, ARDS, Pulmonary Embolism)
Endocrine Disorders (Diabetes, DKA/HHS, Thyroid, Adrenal Disorders)
Renal, Fluid & Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Disorders
Neurological, Perioperative, Shock & Hematologic Care
All questions are original, application-level items aligned to the course blueprint.
Correct answers are evenly distributed. Rationales explain both correct and key distractors.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
Q1. A 68-year-old client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute decompensated heart failure. The
nurse notes jugular venous distention, bilateral crackles, and a weight gain of 3 kg in two days. The client reports
orthopnea. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer the prescribed loop diuretic intravenously
B. Encourage the client to ambulate in the hallway
C. Provide a high-sodium diet to improve fluid balance
D. Place the client in a supine position to promote venous return
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intravenous loop diuretics rapidly reduce preload and fluid volume overload, which is the priority in acute
decompensated heart failure presenting with JVD, crackles, and rapid weight gain. Ambulation and high-sodium intake would
worsen fluid retention, and a supine position increases venous return and pulmonary congestion.
Q2. A client who experienced an ST-elevation myocardial infarction two hours ago is receiving continuous cardiac
monitoring. The monitor shows frequent premature ventricular contractions that progress to a short run of
ventricular tachycardia. The client remains conscious and reports mild chest discomfort. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Prepare for immediate defibrillation at 200 joules
B. Administer a fluid bolus of normal saline rapidly
C. Assess the client's vital signs and notify the provider
D. Instruct the client to perform Valsalva maneuver
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client is hemodynamically stable with a short run of VT; therefore the priority is to assess vital signs and notify
the provider for possible antiarrhythmic therapy. Defibrillation is reserved for pulseless VT or VF. Fluid bolus and Valsalva are
not indicated for post-MI ventricular ectopy.
Q3. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed digoxin and a potassium-sparing diuretic. The nurse reviews the
morning laboratory results: potassium 3.1 mEq/L, digoxin level 2.4 ng/mL, and creatinine 1.8 mg/dL. Which finding
requires the most immediate nursing action?
A. Mildly elevated creatinine alone
B. Elevated digoxin level with concurrent hypokalemia
C. Potassium level slightly below normal range
D. Combination of digoxin and potassium-sparing diuretic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A digoxin level of 2.4 ng/mL is toxic and hypokalemia markedly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity and
life-threatening dysrhythmias. This combination demands immediate intervention. Isolated mild creatinine elevation or a
potassium-sparing diuretic alone do not carry the same urgency.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM • Page 1
NUR 209 EXAM 1
MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING II
2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS
A+
(GUARANTEED PASS!!)
Aligned to Fortis College NUR209 Medical Surgical Nursing II Objectives • Intermediate Nursing Course Level
A+ QUESTIONS 5 SECTIONS 100%
VERIFIED COMPLETE RATIONALES
CATEGORIES
Cardiovascular Disorders (Heart Failure, ACS/MI, Dysrhythmias, Valvular Disease)
Respiratory Disorders (COPD, Asthma, Pneumonia, ARDS, Pulmonary Embolism)
Endocrine Disorders (Diabetes, DKA/HHS, Thyroid, Adrenal Disorders)
Renal, Fluid & Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Disorders
Neurological, Perioperative, Shock & Hematologic Care
All questions are original, application-level items aligned to the course blueprint.
Correct answers are evenly distributed. Rationales explain both correct and key distractors.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
Q1. A 68-year-old client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute decompensated heart failure. The
nurse notes jugular venous distention, bilateral crackles, and a weight gain of 3 kg in two days. The client reports
orthopnea. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer the prescribed loop diuretic intravenously
B. Encourage the client to ambulate in the hallway
C. Provide a high-sodium diet to improve fluid balance
D. Place the client in a supine position to promote venous return
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intravenous loop diuretics rapidly reduce preload and fluid volume overload, which is the priority in acute
decompensated heart failure presenting with JVD, crackles, and rapid weight gain. Ambulation and high-sodium intake would
worsen fluid retention, and a supine position increases venous return and pulmonary congestion.
Q2. A client who experienced an ST-elevation myocardial infarction two hours ago is receiving continuous cardiac
monitoring. The monitor shows frequent premature ventricular contractions that progress to a short run of
ventricular tachycardia. The client remains conscious and reports mild chest discomfort. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Prepare for immediate defibrillation at 200 joules
B. Administer a fluid bolus of normal saline rapidly
C. Assess the client's vital signs and notify the provider
D. Instruct the client to perform Valsalva maneuver
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client is hemodynamically stable with a short run of VT; therefore the priority is to assess vital signs and notify
the provider for possible antiarrhythmic therapy. Defibrillation is reserved for pulseless VT or VF. Fluid bolus and Valsalva are
not indicated for post-MI ventricular ectopy.
Q3. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed digoxin and a potassium-sparing diuretic. The nurse reviews the
morning laboratory results: potassium 3.1 mEq/L, digoxin level 2.4 ng/mL, and creatinine 1.8 mg/dL. Which finding
requires the most immediate nursing action?
A. Mildly elevated creatinine alone
B. Elevated digoxin level with concurrent hypokalemia
C. Potassium level slightly below normal range
D. Combination of digoxin and potassium-sparing diuretic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A digoxin level of 2.4 ng/mL is toxic and hypokalemia markedly increases the risk of digoxin toxicity and
life-threatening dysrhythmias. This combination demands immediate intervention. Isolated mild creatinine elevation or a
potassium-sparing diuretic alone do not carry the same urgency.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM • Page 1
