NURSING EXAM PREP
NUR 209 EXAM 1
MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING II
2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
A+
100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS
(GUARANTEED PASS!!)
Aligned to Fortis College NUR209 Medical Surgical Nursing II Objectives • Intermediate Nursing Course Level
A+ QUESTIONS 5 SECTIONS 100%
VERIFIED COMPLETE RATIONALES
CATEGORIES
1. Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions 1–12)
2. Respiratory Disorders (Questions 13–22)
3. Endocrine & Renal Disorders (Questions 23–32)
4. Neurological & Fluid/Electrolyte/Acid-Base (Questions 33–42)
5. Perioperative, GI, Musculoskeletal & Other High-Yield (Questions 43–50)
EXAM SPECIFICATIONS
Difficulty: Intermediate (Fortis NUR209 level) | Bloom's: Application / Analysis
Format: Multiple Choice (A–D) | 1 mark each | Passing Score: 80%
High-yield focus: Heart failure, ACS/MI, COPD, asthma, DKA, AKI/CKD, stroke, ICP,
ABGs, fluid/electrolytes, perioperative care, and common med-surg complications.
All items are original practice content for educational use only.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM • Educational Practice Use • 2026/2027
, SECTION: 1. CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
Q1. A 68-year-old client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute decompensated heart
failure. The nurse notes bilateral crackles, 3+ pitting edema of the ankles, and an S3 gallop. Which
assessment finding most clearly indicates fluid volume overload requiring immediate intervention?
A. Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
B. Oxygen saturation of 96% on room air
C. Weight gain of 2.5 kg since yesterday and jugular venous distention
D. Blood pressure of 138/84 mm Hg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rapid weight gain and jugular venous distention are classic signs of fluid retention and
elevated central venous pressure in decompensated heart failure. These findings warrant prompt diuretic
therapy and fluid-status monitoring.
Q2. A client arrives in the emergency department with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the
left arm, diaphoresis, and nausea that began 45 minutes ago. The 12-lead ECG shows ST-segment
elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. The nurse prepares for which priority intervention?
A. Reperfusion therapy with percutaneous coronary intervention or fibrinolytic therapy as ordered
B. Immediate administration of oral ibuprofen for pain
C. Placement of a permanent pacemaker
D. Routine chest physiotherapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) in the inferior leads requires emergent
reperfusion to salvage myocardium. Time-sensitive PCI or fibrinolysis is the priority intervention.
Q3. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed digoxin 0.125 mg daily. Before administering the
dose the nurse obtains an apical pulse of 52 beats per minute. The most appropriate nursing action
is to:
A. Administer the digoxin as ordered and recheck the pulse in one hour
B. Hold the digoxin and notify the health-care provider
C. Double the next dose to compensate
D. Give the digoxin with a high-carbohydrate meal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bradycardia is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity or an indication that the drug should be
held. The nurse withholds the dose and collaborates with the provider for further evaluation.
Q4. A client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction develops sudden onset of dyspnea,
tachycardia, and a new holosystolic murmur at the apex. The nurse recognizes these findings as
possible:
A.Expected post-MI fatigue
B.Simple anxiety attack
C.Minor gastrointestinal upset
D.Papillary muscle rupture or ventricular septal defect requiring immediate notification of the
provider
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A new holosystolic murmur with acute respiratory distress after MI raises concern for
mechanical complications such as papillary muscle rupture or VSD, both of which are surgical
emergencies.
Q5. A client with atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin. The nurse teaches the client that the
therapeutic INR range for most patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation is approximately:
A. 0.8–1.1
B. 2.0–3.0
C. 4.5–6.0
D. No monitoring is required
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The target INR for most patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation on warfarin is
2.0–3.0. Values outside this range increase the risk of thrombosis or bleeding.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM • Page 2
NUR 209 EXAM 1
MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING II
2026/2027 ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK
WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
A+
100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS
(GUARANTEED PASS!!)
Aligned to Fortis College NUR209 Medical Surgical Nursing II Objectives • Intermediate Nursing Course Level
A+ QUESTIONS 5 SECTIONS 100%
VERIFIED COMPLETE RATIONALES
CATEGORIES
1. Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions 1–12)
2. Respiratory Disorders (Questions 13–22)
3. Endocrine & Renal Disorders (Questions 23–32)
4. Neurological & Fluid/Electrolyte/Acid-Base (Questions 33–42)
5. Perioperative, GI, Musculoskeletal & Other High-Yield (Questions 43–50)
EXAM SPECIFICATIONS
Difficulty: Intermediate (Fortis NUR209 level) | Bloom's: Application / Analysis
Format: Multiple Choice (A–D) | 1 mark each | Passing Score: 80%
High-yield focus: Heart failure, ACS/MI, COPD, asthma, DKA, AKI/CKD, stroke, ICP,
ABGs, fluid/electrolytes, perioperative care, and common med-surg complications.
All items are original practice content for educational use only.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM • Educational Practice Use • 2026/2027
, SECTION: 1. CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
Q1. A 68-year-old client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute decompensated heart
failure. The nurse notes bilateral crackles, 3+ pitting edema of the ankles, and an S3 gallop. Which
assessment finding most clearly indicates fluid volume overload requiring immediate intervention?
A. Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
B. Oxygen saturation of 96% on room air
C. Weight gain of 2.5 kg since yesterday and jugular venous distention
D. Blood pressure of 138/84 mm Hg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rapid weight gain and jugular venous distention are classic signs of fluid retention and
elevated central venous pressure in decompensated heart failure. These findings warrant prompt diuretic
therapy and fluid-status monitoring.
Q2. A client arrives in the emergency department with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the
left arm, diaphoresis, and nausea that began 45 minutes ago. The 12-lead ECG shows ST-segment
elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. The nurse prepares for which priority intervention?
A. Reperfusion therapy with percutaneous coronary intervention or fibrinolytic therapy as ordered
B. Immediate administration of oral ibuprofen for pain
C. Placement of a permanent pacemaker
D. Routine chest physiotherapy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) in the inferior leads requires emergent
reperfusion to salvage myocardium. Time-sensitive PCI or fibrinolysis is the priority intervention.
Q3. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed digoxin 0.125 mg daily. Before administering the
dose the nurse obtains an apical pulse of 52 beats per minute. The most appropriate nursing action
is to:
A. Administer the digoxin as ordered and recheck the pulse in one hour
B. Hold the digoxin and notify the health-care provider
C. Double the next dose to compensate
D. Give the digoxin with a high-carbohydrate meal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bradycardia is a classic sign of digoxin toxicity or an indication that the drug should be
held. The nurse withholds the dose and collaborates with the provider for further evaluation.
Q4. A client recovering from an acute myocardial infarction develops sudden onset of dyspnea,
tachycardia, and a new holosystolic murmur at the apex. The nurse recognizes these findings as
possible:
A.Expected post-MI fatigue
B.Simple anxiety attack
C.Minor gastrointestinal upset
D.Papillary muscle rupture or ventricular septal defect requiring immediate notification of the
provider
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A new holosystolic murmur with acute respiratory distress after MI raises concern for
mechanical complications such as papillary muscle rupture or VSD, both of which are surgical
emergencies.
Q5. A client with atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin. The nurse teaches the client that the
therapeutic INR range for most patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation is approximately:
A. 0.8–1.1
B. 2.0–3.0
C. 4.5–6.0
D. No monitoring is required
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The target INR for most patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation on warfarin is
2.0–3.0. Values outside this range increase the risk of thrombosis or bleeding.
STUVIAACTUALEXAM • Page 2
