2026 AEMT Exam Prep: Advanced
Emergency Medical Technician Practice
Questions with Answer Rationales —
Pharmacology, Airway, Cardiology, Trauma
& Clinical Judgment Study Guide
SECTION 1: PHARMACOLOGY AND MEDICATION
ADMINISTRATION (Questions 1–20)
Question 1
An AEMT is preparing to administer epinephrine 1:1,000 to a patient experiencing
anaphylaxis. The patient weighs 70 kg. What is the appropriate dose and route?
A. 0.3 mg intramuscular in the lateral thigh
B. 1 mg intravenous push
C. 0.5 mg subcutaneous in the abdomen
D. 3 mg intramuscular in the deltoid
Answer: A
Rationale: The standard adult dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis is 0.3 mg (0.3
mL of 1:1,000 solution) administered intramuscularly in the vastus lateralis (lateral
thigh). The 1 mg IV dose (B) is for cardiac arrest using the 1:10,000 concentration.
Subcutaneous administration (C) is no longer recommended due to unpredictable
absorption. A 3 mg dose (D) is excessive and dangerous.
Question 2
Which of the following medications is indicated for a patient experiencing
symptomatic bradycardia unresponsive to atropine?
A. Adenosine
B. Amiodarone
,C. Epinephrine infusion
D. Nitroglycerin
Answer: C
Rationale: For symptomatic bradycardia that does not respond to atropine, an
epinephrine infusion (2–10 mcg/min) or dopamine infusion is indicated. Adenosine
(A) is for supraventricular tachycardia. Amiodarone (B) is for ventricular
arrhythmias. Nitroglycerin (D) is for chest pain and pulmonary edema, and would
worsen bradycardia.
Question 3
An AEMT is administering albuterol via nebulizer to a patient with asthma. Which
of the following is a potential side effect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypotension
D. Miosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist that can cause tachycardia, tremors, and
nervousness as side effects. Bradycardia (A) is not a typical side effect.
Hypotension (C) is uncommon but possible. Miosis (D) is not associated with
albuterol.
Question 4
Which of the following is the correct dose of aspirin for a patient with suspected
acute coronary syndrome?
A. 81 mg chewed
B. 162–325 mg chewed
C. 500 mg swallowed whole
D. 650 mg dissolved in water
Answer: B
,Rationale: The recommended dose of aspirin for suspected ACS is 162–325 mg
chewed (non-enteric coated). Chewing accelerates absorption. An 81 mg dose (A)
is a maintenance dose, not an acute intervention. Swallowing whole (C) delays
absorption. A 650 mg dose (D) exceeds the recommended range.
Question 5
An AEMT is preparing to administer nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication?
A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
B. Blood pressure of 88/56 mmHg
C. History of diabetes
D. Age of 65 years
Answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients with systolic blood pressure
less than 90 mmHg or 30 mmHg below their baseline. A blood pressure of 88/56
mmHg (B) is an absolute contraindication. Tachycardia (A), diabetes (C), and age
(D) are not contraindications.
Question 6
Which of the following medications is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory
depression?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Atropine
D. Glucagon
Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone is a competitive opioid antagonist that reverses opioid-
induced respiratory depression. Flumazenil (A) reverses benzodiazepines. Atropine
(C) is for bradycardia and cholinergic toxicity. Glucagon (D) is for hypoglycemia.
, Question 7
An AEMT is administering glucagon to an unresponsive hypoglycemic patient.
What is the appropriate dose and route?
A. 0.5 mg IV
B. 1 mg IM
C. 5 mg oral
D. 10 mg subcutaneous
Answer: B
Rationale: The appropriate dose of glucagon for an unresponsive hypoglycemic
patient is 1 mg intramuscularly. The IV route (A) is not typically used for glucagon
in the prehospital setting. Oral administration (C) is contraindicated in
unresponsive patients. A 10 mg dose (D) is excessive.
Question 8
Which of the following is the correct concentration of epinephrine for cardiac
arrest?
A. 1:1,000
B. 1:10,000
C. 1:100
D. 1:100,000
Answer: B
Rationale: The 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine (0.1 mg/mL) is used for
cardiac arrest, administered at 1 mg IV/IO every 3–5 minutes. The 1:1,000
concentration (A) is used for anaphylaxis. The 1:100 (C) and 1:100,000 (D)
concentrations are not standard for prehospital use.
Question 9
An AEMT is preparing to administer ondansetron to a patient with nausea and
vomiting. What is the mechanism of action?
A. Dopamine antagonist
B. 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
Emergency Medical Technician Practice
Questions with Answer Rationales —
Pharmacology, Airway, Cardiology, Trauma
& Clinical Judgment Study Guide
SECTION 1: PHARMACOLOGY AND MEDICATION
ADMINISTRATION (Questions 1–20)
Question 1
An AEMT is preparing to administer epinephrine 1:1,000 to a patient experiencing
anaphylaxis. The patient weighs 70 kg. What is the appropriate dose and route?
A. 0.3 mg intramuscular in the lateral thigh
B. 1 mg intravenous push
C. 0.5 mg subcutaneous in the abdomen
D. 3 mg intramuscular in the deltoid
Answer: A
Rationale: The standard adult dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis is 0.3 mg (0.3
mL of 1:1,000 solution) administered intramuscularly in the vastus lateralis (lateral
thigh). The 1 mg IV dose (B) is for cardiac arrest using the 1:10,000 concentration.
Subcutaneous administration (C) is no longer recommended due to unpredictable
absorption. A 3 mg dose (D) is excessive and dangerous.
Question 2
Which of the following medications is indicated for a patient experiencing
symptomatic bradycardia unresponsive to atropine?
A. Adenosine
B. Amiodarone
,C. Epinephrine infusion
D. Nitroglycerin
Answer: C
Rationale: For symptomatic bradycardia that does not respond to atropine, an
epinephrine infusion (2–10 mcg/min) or dopamine infusion is indicated. Adenosine
(A) is for supraventricular tachycardia. Amiodarone (B) is for ventricular
arrhythmias. Nitroglycerin (D) is for chest pain and pulmonary edema, and would
worsen bradycardia.
Question 3
An AEMT is administering albuterol via nebulizer to a patient with asthma. Which
of the following is a potential side effect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypotension
D. Miosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist that can cause tachycardia, tremors, and
nervousness as side effects. Bradycardia (A) is not a typical side effect.
Hypotension (C) is uncommon but possible. Miosis (D) is not associated with
albuterol.
Question 4
Which of the following is the correct dose of aspirin for a patient with suspected
acute coronary syndrome?
A. 81 mg chewed
B. 162–325 mg chewed
C. 500 mg swallowed whole
D. 650 mg dissolved in water
Answer: B
,Rationale: The recommended dose of aspirin for suspected ACS is 162–325 mg
chewed (non-enteric coated). Chewing accelerates absorption. An 81 mg dose (A)
is a maintenance dose, not an acute intervention. Swallowing whole (C) delays
absorption. A 650 mg dose (D) exceeds the recommended range.
Question 5
An AEMT is preparing to administer nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain.
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication?
A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
B. Blood pressure of 88/56 mmHg
C. History of diabetes
D. Age of 65 years
Answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients with systolic blood pressure
less than 90 mmHg or 30 mmHg below their baseline. A blood pressure of 88/56
mmHg (B) is an absolute contraindication. Tachycardia (A), diabetes (C), and age
(D) are not contraindications.
Question 6
Which of the following medications is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory
depression?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Atropine
D. Glucagon
Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone is a competitive opioid antagonist that reverses opioid-
induced respiratory depression. Flumazenil (A) reverses benzodiazepines. Atropine
(C) is for bradycardia and cholinergic toxicity. Glucagon (D) is for hypoglycemia.
, Question 7
An AEMT is administering glucagon to an unresponsive hypoglycemic patient.
What is the appropriate dose and route?
A. 0.5 mg IV
B. 1 mg IM
C. 5 mg oral
D. 10 mg subcutaneous
Answer: B
Rationale: The appropriate dose of glucagon for an unresponsive hypoglycemic
patient is 1 mg intramuscularly. The IV route (A) is not typically used for glucagon
in the prehospital setting. Oral administration (C) is contraindicated in
unresponsive patients. A 10 mg dose (D) is excessive.
Question 8
Which of the following is the correct concentration of epinephrine for cardiac
arrest?
A. 1:1,000
B. 1:10,000
C. 1:100
D. 1:100,000
Answer: B
Rationale: The 1:10,000 concentration of epinephrine (0.1 mg/mL) is used for
cardiac arrest, administered at 1 mg IV/IO every 3–5 minutes. The 1:1,000
concentration (A) is used for anaphylaxis. The 1:100 (C) and 1:100,000 (D)
concentrations are not standard for prehospital use.
Question 9
An AEMT is preparing to administer ondansetron to a patient with nausea and
vomiting. What is the mechanism of action?
A. Dopamine antagonist
B. 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
