NURS407-0 CAPSTONE PHARMACOLOGY 2 ACTUAL
PRACTICE EXAM WITH WELL ELABORATED AND
MOST TESTED REAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY 2026-2027
Q&A 100% GUARANTEED PASS A+ INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is caring for a client who reports using the herbal medication garlic
along with prescribed warfarin. The nurse should identify that which of the
following is a potential adverse effect of taking both of these products
concurrently?
A. Altered renal perfusion
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Increased ecchymosis
D. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: The nurse should identify that ecchymosis occurs when there is
bleeding under the skin. Garlic has antiplatelet effects that can result in
bleeding. When taken concurrently with an anticoagulant such as warfarin,
there is an increased risk for bleeding.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is starting to take aspirin. The
nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following
findings as an adverse effect of this medication?
,A. Black, tarry stools
B. Nystagmus
C. Dry mouth
D. Tinnitus
Rationale: A client who takes aspirin can have an increased risk for bleeding
because aspirin suppresses platelet aggregation. The nurse should instruct the
client to monitor for and report indications of bleeding, such as bruising,
petechiae, and blood in stools or urine.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has an infection and is starting to take
gentamicin. Which of the following client laboratory tests should the nurse
monitor to detect an adverse effect of the medication?
A. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
B. Creatinine
C. Amylase level
D. Glucose
Rationale: The nurse should monitor creatinine, BUN, and urine output for a
client who is receiving gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic. Gentamicin has
both nephrotoxic and ototoxic adverse effects.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes insipidus and is starting
intranasal desmopressin. Which of the following findings should indicate to
the nurse that the medication is effective?
A. The client has clear mucus
B. The client's 24 hr urine output is 1,256 mL
C. The client reports increased thirst
D. The client's blood glucose is 110 mg/dL
Rationale: Desmopressin is effective for the treatment of diabetes insipidus, a
disorder of the posterior pituitary gland in which large amounts of dilute urine
are produced due to a deficiency in vasopressin. The action of desmopressin
causes reabsorption of water and a decrease in urine volume. A urine output of
,1,256 mL over 24 hr is within the expected reference range and indicates the
medication is effective.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for haloperidol 0.5 mg
PO three times daily. The medication administration record shows that the
client received 5 mg per dose on the previous day. Which of the following
manifestations is the nurse's priority to assess?
A. Muscle stiffness
B. Blurred vision
C. Constipation
D. Dry mouth
Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the greatest risk to the client is
developing neuroleptic malignant syndrome, an adverse reaction to haloperidol
that is potentially fatal if not treated promptly. Manifestations of neuroleptic
malignant syndrome include extreme muscle stiffness, sudden increase in
temperature, diaphoresis, dysrhythmias, and fluctuations in blood pressure.
6. A nurse is assessing a client who received ondansetron 1 hr ago. Which of
the following findings should the nurse identify as a therapeutic effect of the
medication?
A. Decreased pain
B. Suppressed emesis
C. Increased appetite
D. Decreased blood pressure
Rationale: Ondansetron suppresses nausea and vomiting induced by
chemotherapy, anesthesia, radiation therapy, or morning sickness by blocking
serotonin receptors in the upper GI tract.
, 7. A nurse is caring for a client who has chemotherapy-induced anemia. The
nurse should expect to administer which of the following medications to
treat the anemia?
A. Sargramostim
B. Filgrastim
C. Epoetin alfa
D. Romiplostim
Rationale: Epoetin alfa (Procrit/Epogen) is a synthetic erythropoietin used to
stimulate red blood cell production and treat chemotherapy-induced anemia.
Filgrastim (Neupogen) and sargramostim (Leukine) are colony-stimulating
factors used for neutropenia (low WBCs), not anemia. Romiplostim is a
thrombopoietin receptor agonist used to treat thrombocytopenia (low platelets).
8. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who has type 1
diabetes mellitus. The client takes lispro insulin and has a new prescription
for pramlintide. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Monitor the client for weight gain.
B. Monitor for hypoglycemia for 3 hr after pramlintide administration.
C. Inject the pramlintide in the client's upper arm.
D. Administer pramlintide 30 min prior to a meal.
Rationale: Pramlintide, when used with mealtime insulin, significantly increases
the risk of severe hypoglycemia, especially in type 1 diabetes. The risk is highest
within the first 3 hours after injection. Pramlintide should be injected into the
abdomen or thigh (NOT the upper arm), must be administered immediately
before (not 30 min prior to) each major meal, and causes weight loss (not gain)
by slowing gastric emptying.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who started taking furosemide 2 days ago and
has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should
the nurse expect?
PRACTICE EXAM WITH WELL ELABORATED AND
MOST TESTED REAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY 2026-2027
Q&A 100% GUARANTEED PASS A+ INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is caring for a client who reports using the herbal medication garlic
along with prescribed warfarin. The nurse should identify that which of the
following is a potential adverse effect of taking both of these products
concurrently?
A. Altered renal perfusion
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Increased ecchymosis
D. Hyperkalemia
Rationale: The nurse should identify that ecchymosis occurs when there is
bleeding under the skin. Garlic has antiplatelet effects that can result in
bleeding. When taken concurrently with an anticoagulant such as warfarin,
there is an increased risk for bleeding.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is starting to take aspirin. The
nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following
findings as an adverse effect of this medication?
,A. Black, tarry stools
B. Nystagmus
C. Dry mouth
D. Tinnitus
Rationale: A client who takes aspirin can have an increased risk for bleeding
because aspirin suppresses platelet aggregation. The nurse should instruct the
client to monitor for and report indications of bleeding, such as bruising,
petechiae, and blood in stools or urine.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has an infection and is starting to take
gentamicin. Which of the following client laboratory tests should the nurse
monitor to detect an adverse effect of the medication?
A. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
B. Creatinine
C. Amylase level
D. Glucose
Rationale: The nurse should monitor creatinine, BUN, and urine output for a
client who is receiving gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic. Gentamicin has
both nephrotoxic and ototoxic adverse effects.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes insipidus and is starting
intranasal desmopressin. Which of the following findings should indicate to
the nurse that the medication is effective?
A. The client has clear mucus
B. The client's 24 hr urine output is 1,256 mL
C. The client reports increased thirst
D. The client's blood glucose is 110 mg/dL
Rationale: Desmopressin is effective for the treatment of diabetes insipidus, a
disorder of the posterior pituitary gland in which large amounts of dilute urine
are produced due to a deficiency in vasopressin. The action of desmopressin
causes reabsorption of water and a decrease in urine volume. A urine output of
,1,256 mL over 24 hr is within the expected reference range and indicates the
medication is effective.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for haloperidol 0.5 mg
PO three times daily. The medication administration record shows that the
client received 5 mg per dose on the previous day. Which of the following
manifestations is the nurse's priority to assess?
A. Muscle stiffness
B. Blurred vision
C. Constipation
D. Dry mouth
Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the greatest risk to the client is
developing neuroleptic malignant syndrome, an adverse reaction to haloperidol
that is potentially fatal if not treated promptly. Manifestations of neuroleptic
malignant syndrome include extreme muscle stiffness, sudden increase in
temperature, diaphoresis, dysrhythmias, and fluctuations in blood pressure.
6. A nurse is assessing a client who received ondansetron 1 hr ago. Which of
the following findings should the nurse identify as a therapeutic effect of the
medication?
A. Decreased pain
B. Suppressed emesis
C. Increased appetite
D. Decreased blood pressure
Rationale: Ondansetron suppresses nausea and vomiting induced by
chemotherapy, anesthesia, radiation therapy, or morning sickness by blocking
serotonin receptors in the upper GI tract.
, 7. A nurse is caring for a client who has chemotherapy-induced anemia. The
nurse should expect to administer which of the following medications to
treat the anemia?
A. Sargramostim
B. Filgrastim
C. Epoetin alfa
D. Romiplostim
Rationale: Epoetin alfa (Procrit/Epogen) is a synthetic erythropoietin used to
stimulate red blood cell production and treat chemotherapy-induced anemia.
Filgrastim (Neupogen) and sargramostim (Leukine) are colony-stimulating
factors used for neutropenia (low WBCs), not anemia. Romiplostim is a
thrombopoietin receptor agonist used to treat thrombocytopenia (low platelets).
8. A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client who has type 1
diabetes mellitus. The client takes lispro insulin and has a new prescription
for pramlintide. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Monitor the client for weight gain.
B. Monitor for hypoglycemia for 3 hr after pramlintide administration.
C. Inject the pramlintide in the client's upper arm.
D. Administer pramlintide 30 min prior to a meal.
Rationale: Pramlintide, when used with mealtime insulin, significantly increases
the risk of severe hypoglycemia, especially in type 1 diabetes. The risk is highest
within the first 3 hours after injection. Pramlintide should be injected into the
abdomen or thigh (NOT the upper arm), must be administered immediately
before (not 30 min prior to) each major meal, and causes weight loss (not gain)
by slowing gastric emptying.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who started taking furosemide 2 days ago and
has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should
the nurse expect?
