NR601 | NR 601 Final exam preparation
test banks 1 and 2 - a review of 550+
latest real exam questions and correct
answers graded A Chamberlain/ NR 601
Final Exam|nr601 final exam Primary
Care of the Maturing and Aged Family
Practicum
Test Bank 1: NR 601 Final Exam Preparation
Section 1: Cardiovascular Conditions
1. A 58-year-old Caucasian male with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic
as a new patient. He takes metformin 500mg twice daily. His last Hgb A1c was 7%.
He is up to date on eye and foot examinations. His BP is 142/96. According to ACC
2017 guidelines for high blood pressure in adults, what is the most appropriate
first-line medication?
A. Lisinopril
B. Furosemide
C. Amlodipine
D. Clonidine
Rationale: In a patient with diabetes and hypertension, an ACE inhibitor such as
lisinopril is commonly selected because it treats hypertension and provides renal
protection, especially when kidney disease or albuminuria is a concern .
,2. The NP knows that medications can trigger or worsen heart failure. With this
knowledge in mind, the NP will avoid prescribing the following classes of
medications:
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Macrolides
C. Muscle relaxants
D. NSAIDs
Rationale: NSAIDs can worsen heart failure by promoting sodium and water retention,
increasing blood pressure, and reducing renal perfusion. They should be avoided or
used cautiously in patients with heart failure .
3. MG, a 60-year-old female, presents with complaints of her "heart flipping in her
chest." The NP wants to evaluate for arrhythmia. The NP knows that the
cornerstone for arrhythmia evaluation includes:
A. Electrocardiogram
B. Physical examination
C. All options are appropriate
D. History
Rationale: Arrhythmia evaluation begins with a careful history, focused physical
examination, and ECG. Additional monitoring may be needed if symptoms are
intermittent .
4. The most common sustained rhythmic disorder, which consists of fibrillatory P
waves, is:
A. AV block
B. Atrial tachycardia
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Atrial flutter
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by chaotic atrial activity with fibrillatory
waves (f waves) replacing distinct P waves. It is the most common sustained cardiac
arrhythmia .
5. During a physical exam, the NP suspects right-sided heart failure in a 78-year-
old patient with fatigue and bilateral lower extremity swelling. Which of the
following findings MOST strongly supports this suspicion?
,A. Elevated jugular venous pressure
B. Dry mucous membranes
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Unilateral wheezing
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic venous congestion, commonly
presenting with elevated JVP, peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, and ascites.
6. A 72-year-old patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)
should be started on which of the following medication classes to reduce
mortality?
A. Beta-blocker
B. ACE inhibitor or ARB
C. Both A and B
D. Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: Guideline-directed medical therapy for HFrEF includes both a beta-blocker
(e.g., carvedilol, metoprolol succinate) and an ACE inhibitor or ARB.
7. Based on the New York Heart Association Functional Classification, which of the
following is classified as Functional Class II?
A. Symptoms at rest
B. Slight limitation of physical activity, ordinary activity causes symptoms
C. No limitation of physical activity, no symptoms with ordinary exertion
D. Marked limitation of physical activity, asymptomatic at rest
Rationale: NYHA Class II is characterized by slight limitation of physical activity where
ordinary activity results in symptoms such as fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea .
8. Aortic regurgitation requires medical treatment for early signs of HF with:
A. Beta-blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Diuretics only
D. Calcium channel blockers
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce afterload in aortic regurgitation, decreasing the
volume of regurgitant flow and delaying left ventricular dilation and systolic dysfunction.
9. The NP is examining an older adult patient with suspected mitral stenosis (MS).
Which of the following is the MOST common cause of MS?
, A. Rheumatic fever
B. Viral pneumonia
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Acute kidney injury
Rationale: Rheumatic heart disease remains the most common cause of mitral stenosis
because chronic valvular scarring narrows the mitral valve orifice.
10. According to the 2017 ACC HTN guidelines, what is considered a normal blood
pressure reading for adults?
A. 120-129/80-89 mmHg
B. 130-139/80-89 mmHg
C. Less than 120/80 mmHg
D. 140/90 mmHg or higher
Rationale: According to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, normal blood pressure is
defined as less than 120/80 mmHg .
Section 2: Neurological Conditions
11. Mr. A experienced a brief onset of right-sided weakness, slurred speech, and
confusion yesterday. The symptoms have resolved and the CT is normal. What is
the next step of the plan for Mr. A?
A. Assure the patient that he will not experience the symptoms again
B. Identify modifiable cardiovascular risk factors
C. Order ASA 81mg stat
D. Order a stat EEG and administer O2 by mask
Rationale: These symptoms are consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Once
symptoms resolve and CT is normal, the priority is secondary prevention by identifying
and managing modifiable cardiovascular risks such as hypertension, diabetes, smoking,
dyslipidemia, and atrial fibrillation .
12. An older male patient is experiencing acute onset of right-sided weakness,
slurred speech, and confusion. What should the nurse practitioner do promptly?
test banks 1 and 2 - a review of 550+
latest real exam questions and correct
answers graded A Chamberlain/ NR 601
Final Exam|nr601 final exam Primary
Care of the Maturing and Aged Family
Practicum
Test Bank 1: NR 601 Final Exam Preparation
Section 1: Cardiovascular Conditions
1. A 58-year-old Caucasian male with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic
as a new patient. He takes metformin 500mg twice daily. His last Hgb A1c was 7%.
He is up to date on eye and foot examinations. His BP is 142/96. According to ACC
2017 guidelines for high blood pressure in adults, what is the most appropriate
first-line medication?
A. Lisinopril
B. Furosemide
C. Amlodipine
D. Clonidine
Rationale: In a patient with diabetes and hypertension, an ACE inhibitor such as
lisinopril is commonly selected because it treats hypertension and provides renal
protection, especially when kidney disease or albuminuria is a concern .
,2. The NP knows that medications can trigger or worsen heart failure. With this
knowledge in mind, the NP will avoid prescribing the following classes of
medications:
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Macrolides
C. Muscle relaxants
D. NSAIDs
Rationale: NSAIDs can worsen heart failure by promoting sodium and water retention,
increasing blood pressure, and reducing renal perfusion. They should be avoided or
used cautiously in patients with heart failure .
3. MG, a 60-year-old female, presents with complaints of her "heart flipping in her
chest." The NP wants to evaluate for arrhythmia. The NP knows that the
cornerstone for arrhythmia evaluation includes:
A. Electrocardiogram
B. Physical examination
C. All options are appropriate
D. History
Rationale: Arrhythmia evaluation begins with a careful history, focused physical
examination, and ECG. Additional monitoring may be needed if symptoms are
intermittent .
4. The most common sustained rhythmic disorder, which consists of fibrillatory P
waves, is:
A. AV block
B. Atrial tachycardia
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Atrial flutter
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by chaotic atrial activity with fibrillatory
waves (f waves) replacing distinct P waves. It is the most common sustained cardiac
arrhythmia .
5. During a physical exam, the NP suspects right-sided heart failure in a 78-year-
old patient with fatigue and bilateral lower extremity swelling. Which of the
following findings MOST strongly supports this suspicion?
,A. Elevated jugular venous pressure
B. Dry mucous membranes
C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
D. Unilateral wheezing
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic venous congestion, commonly
presenting with elevated JVP, peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, and ascites.
6. A 72-year-old patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)
should be started on which of the following medication classes to reduce
mortality?
A. Beta-blocker
B. ACE inhibitor or ARB
C. Both A and B
D. Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: Guideline-directed medical therapy for HFrEF includes both a beta-blocker
(e.g., carvedilol, metoprolol succinate) and an ACE inhibitor or ARB.
7. Based on the New York Heart Association Functional Classification, which of the
following is classified as Functional Class II?
A. Symptoms at rest
B. Slight limitation of physical activity, ordinary activity causes symptoms
C. No limitation of physical activity, no symptoms with ordinary exertion
D. Marked limitation of physical activity, asymptomatic at rest
Rationale: NYHA Class II is characterized by slight limitation of physical activity where
ordinary activity results in symptoms such as fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea .
8. Aortic regurgitation requires medical treatment for early signs of HF with:
A. Beta-blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Diuretics only
D. Calcium channel blockers
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce afterload in aortic regurgitation, decreasing the
volume of regurgitant flow and delaying left ventricular dilation and systolic dysfunction.
9. The NP is examining an older adult patient with suspected mitral stenosis (MS).
Which of the following is the MOST common cause of MS?
, A. Rheumatic fever
B. Viral pneumonia
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Acute kidney injury
Rationale: Rheumatic heart disease remains the most common cause of mitral stenosis
because chronic valvular scarring narrows the mitral valve orifice.
10. According to the 2017 ACC HTN guidelines, what is considered a normal blood
pressure reading for adults?
A. 120-129/80-89 mmHg
B. 130-139/80-89 mmHg
C. Less than 120/80 mmHg
D. 140/90 mmHg or higher
Rationale: According to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, normal blood pressure is
defined as less than 120/80 mmHg .
Section 2: Neurological Conditions
11. Mr. A experienced a brief onset of right-sided weakness, slurred speech, and
confusion yesterday. The symptoms have resolved and the CT is normal. What is
the next step of the plan for Mr. A?
A. Assure the patient that he will not experience the symptoms again
B. Identify modifiable cardiovascular risk factors
C. Order ASA 81mg stat
D. Order a stat EEG and administer O2 by mask
Rationale: These symptoms are consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Once
symptoms resolve and CT is normal, the priority is secondary prevention by identifying
and managing modifiable cardiovascular risks such as hypertension, diabetes, smoking,
dyslipidemia, and atrial fibrillation .
12. An older male patient is experiencing acute onset of right-sided weakness,
slurred speech, and confusion. What should the nurse practitioner do promptly?
