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NUR 2063 Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam 3 2025–2026 | Rasmussen University | 150 Practice Questions with Answers & Rationales

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Prepare for the NUR 2063 / NUR2063 Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam 3 (2025–2026 Edition) at Rasmussen University with a comprehensive 150-question original practice examination featuring multiple-choice questions, correct answers, and detailed rationales. This study resource reviews disease processes, cellular injury, inflammation, infection, immune responses, cardiovascular, respiratory, neurologic, endocrine, renal, gastrointestinal, hematologic, and musculoskeletal disorders, along with assessment findings, complications, and clinical application. Designed for nursing students, the guide emphasizes understanding pathophysiologic mechanisms and applying them to patient-care scenarios.

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NUR 2063 / NUR2063: Essentials of Pathophysiology — Exam
3 | Rasmussen University | 150 Latest Multiple-Choice

Questions with Correct Answers (2025–2026 Edition)




Neurological Disorders

1. A patient with a history of migraines presents with a sudden, severe "thunderclap"
headache and nuchal rigidity. Which condition is most likely?

A. Tension headache
B. Cluster headache
C. Migraine with aura
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Correct Answer: D — Subarachnoid hemorrhage.




2. In Parkinson disease, the primary neurotransmitter deficiency is:

A. Acetylcholine
B. Dopamine

,C. Serotonin
D. Norepinephrine

Correct Answer: B — Dopamine.




3. A patient with multiple sclerosis is most likely to have which finding on MRI?

A. Subcortical lacunar infarcts
B. Corpus callosum atrophy
C. Periventricular plaques (demyelination)
D. Meningeal enhancement

Correct Answer: C — Periventricular plaques (demyelination).




4. A patient with myasthenia gravis is treated with pyridostigmine. What is the
mechanism of action?

A. Acetylcholine receptor blockade
B. Acetylcholinesterase inhibition
C. Immunosuppression
D. Voltage-gated calcium channel blockade

Correct Answer: B — Acetylcholinesterase inhibition.

,5. Which type of stroke is most commonly caused by atrial fibrillation?

A. Ischemic (thrombotic)
B. Ischemic (embolic)
C. Hemorrhagic (intracerebral)
D. Hemorrhagic (subarachnoid)

Correct Answer: B — Ischemic (embolic).




6. A patient with status epilepticus requires immediate treatment with:

A. Phenytoin
B. Levetiracetam
C. Benzodiazepine (lorazepam)
D. Valproate

Correct Answer: C — Benzodiazepine (lorazepam).




7. In Guillain-Barré syndrome, the primary pathophysiology is:

A. Axonal degeneration
B. Motor neuron loss
C. Muscle acetylcholine receptor destruction
D. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy

Correct Answer: D — Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy.

, 8. A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) develops wide pulse pressure,
bradycardia, and irregular respirations. This triad is called:

A. Kerning sign
B. Brzezinski sign
C. Cushing triad
D. Decerebrate posturing

Correct Answer: C — Cushing triad.




9. What is the best way a nurse can assess if a client has altered brain function?

A. Normal cranial nerve assessment
B. Asking addition and subtraction questions
C. Altered level of consciousness
D. Vital signs

Correct Answer: C — Altered level of consciousness.




10. What are signs of meningitis? (Select all that apply.)

A. Nuchal rigidity
B. Headache

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