NUR 2513 / NUR2513 FINAL EXAM (LATEST ): MATERNAL
CHILD NURSING - RASMUSSEN – EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A |
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client during the first prenatal visit. Which finding
is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Positive urine pregnancy test
B. Amenorrhea
C. Fetal heart activity detected by ultrasound
D. Breast tenderness
Rationale: Fetal heart activity is a positive sign because it directly demonstrates the presence of
a fetus. Amenorrhea, breast changes, and a positive pregnancy test are presumptive or probable
signs and can occur for reasons other than pregnancy.
2. A client asks why folic acid is emphasized before conception and during early
pregnancy. Which response is most appropriate?
A. It reduces the risk of neural tube defects in the developing fetus.
B. It prevents gestational diabetes.
C. It eliminates the need for iron supplementation.
D. It prevents all congenital abnormalities.
Rationale: Adequate folic acid before conception and during early pregnancy reduces the risk of
neural tube defects such as spina bifida. It does not prevent all congenital abnormalities or
replace other nutritional requirements.
3. During a prenatal assessment, the nurse documents the client's pregnancy
history using GTPAL terminology. What does the “A” represent?
A. Number of living children
B. Number of term births
C. Number of preterm births
D. Number of abortions or pregnancies ending before viability
,Rationale: In GTPAL, A represents abortions, including spontaneous or induced pregnancy
losses before the point of viability used by the reporting system. T represents term births, P
preterm births, and L living children.
4. Which maternal physiologic change is expected during a healthy pregnancy?
A. Decreased blood volume
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Decreased oxygen consumption
D. Decreased renal blood flow
Rationale: Cardiac output increases during pregnancy to meet the increased metabolic and
circulatory demands of the mother and fetus. Blood volume and renal blood flow also increase,
while oxygen consumption rises.
5. A pregnant client reports nausea that is most pronounced in the morning. Which
instruction is most appropriate?
A. Drink a large glass of water immediately after waking.
B. Skip breakfast until the nausea resolves.
C. Eat a few dry crackers before getting out of bed.
D. Take all prenatal vitamins on an empty stomach.
Rationale: Eating a small amount of dry food before rising may reduce morning nausea. Small,
frequent meals and avoiding an empty stomach are generally more helpful than skipping meals
or taking prenatal vitamins without food.
6. A client at 24 weeks' gestation asks when fetal movement is commonly first
perceived. Which response is appropriate?
A. During the first 4 weeks
B. Between 8 and 10 weeks
C. Between 12 and 14 weeks
D. Around 16 to 20 weeks
Rationale: First perception of fetal movement, called quickening, commonly occurs around 16 to
20 weeks, although the timing varies, particularly between first and subsequent pregnancies.
, 7. A pregnant client is prescribed an iron supplement. Which teaching point should
the nurse include?
A. Take the medication with an antacid.
B. Take it with milk to improve absorption.
C. Taking it with vitamin C can enhance iron absorption.
D. Stop the supplement if stools become dark.
Rationale: Vitamin C enhances iron absorption. Calcium-containing products and antacids can
decrease absorption. Dark stools are an expected effect of oral iron and do not usually indicate
a need to discontinue therapy.
8. A client at 32 weeks' gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding. Which condition
should the nurse suspect first?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Preterm labor
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester. Placental abruption more commonly causes painful bleeding
accompanied by uterine tenderness or rigidity.
9. A client with suspected placenta previa has vaginal bleeding. Which nursing
action should be avoided?
A. Monitoring maternal vital signs
B. Assessing fetal status
C. Establishing intravenous access as prescribed
D. Performing a digital vaginal examination
Rationale: A digital vaginal examination can disrupt a placenta located over or near the cervical
opening and cause severe hemorrhage. Maternal and fetal assessment and preparation for
treatment are appropriate.
, 10. A pregnant client suddenly develops severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness,
and dark vaginal bleeding. Which complication is most consistent with these
findings?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
D. Cervical insufficiency
Rationale: Placental abruption involves premature separation of the placenta and commonly
presents with painful vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and increased uterine tone. Placenta
previa typically produces painless bleeding.
11. A client at 30 weeks' gestation has a blood pressure of 168/112 mm Hg, severe
headache, and visual disturbances. What is the nurse's priority?
A. Encourage ambulation.
B. Provide a high-sodium snack.
C. Recognize the findings as severe hypertension requiring immediate evaluation and
intervention.
D. Reassure the client that these symptoms are common in pregnancy.
Rationale: Severe hypertension with neurologic symptoms suggests severe preeclampsia and
creates significant maternal and fetal risk. Immediate assessment and treatment are required to
reduce complications such as seizure, stroke, placental abruption, and fetal compromise.
12. Magnesium sulfate is prescribed for a client with severe preeclampsia. What is
the primary purpose of this medication?
A. Lower the fetal heart rate
B. Increase urine output
C. Induce labor
D. Prevent or control maternal seizures
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is used primarily for seizure prophylaxis and treatment in severe
preeclampsia and eclampsia. It is not primarily an antihypertensive or labor-induction
medication.
CHILD NURSING - RASMUSSEN – EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALE | 2027 Q&A |
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client during the first prenatal visit. Which finding
is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Positive urine pregnancy test
B. Amenorrhea
C. Fetal heart activity detected by ultrasound
D. Breast tenderness
Rationale: Fetal heart activity is a positive sign because it directly demonstrates the presence of
a fetus. Amenorrhea, breast changes, and a positive pregnancy test are presumptive or probable
signs and can occur for reasons other than pregnancy.
2. A client asks why folic acid is emphasized before conception and during early
pregnancy. Which response is most appropriate?
A. It reduces the risk of neural tube defects in the developing fetus.
B. It prevents gestational diabetes.
C. It eliminates the need for iron supplementation.
D. It prevents all congenital abnormalities.
Rationale: Adequate folic acid before conception and during early pregnancy reduces the risk of
neural tube defects such as spina bifida. It does not prevent all congenital abnormalities or
replace other nutritional requirements.
3. During a prenatal assessment, the nurse documents the client's pregnancy
history using GTPAL terminology. What does the “A” represent?
A. Number of living children
B. Number of term births
C. Number of preterm births
D. Number of abortions or pregnancies ending before viability
,Rationale: In GTPAL, A represents abortions, including spontaneous or induced pregnancy
losses before the point of viability used by the reporting system. T represents term births, P
preterm births, and L living children.
4. Which maternal physiologic change is expected during a healthy pregnancy?
A. Decreased blood volume
B. Increased cardiac output
C. Decreased oxygen consumption
D. Decreased renal blood flow
Rationale: Cardiac output increases during pregnancy to meet the increased metabolic and
circulatory demands of the mother and fetus. Blood volume and renal blood flow also increase,
while oxygen consumption rises.
5. A pregnant client reports nausea that is most pronounced in the morning. Which
instruction is most appropriate?
A. Drink a large glass of water immediately after waking.
B. Skip breakfast until the nausea resolves.
C. Eat a few dry crackers before getting out of bed.
D. Take all prenatal vitamins on an empty stomach.
Rationale: Eating a small amount of dry food before rising may reduce morning nausea. Small,
frequent meals and avoiding an empty stomach are generally more helpful than skipping meals
or taking prenatal vitamins without food.
6. A client at 24 weeks' gestation asks when fetal movement is commonly first
perceived. Which response is appropriate?
A. During the first 4 weeks
B. Between 8 and 10 weeks
C. Between 12 and 14 weeks
D. Around 16 to 20 weeks
Rationale: First perception of fetal movement, called quickening, commonly occurs around 16 to
20 weeks, although the timing varies, particularly between first and subsequent pregnancies.
, 7. A pregnant client is prescribed an iron supplement. Which teaching point should
the nurse include?
A. Take the medication with an antacid.
B. Take it with milk to improve absorption.
C. Taking it with vitamin C can enhance iron absorption.
D. Stop the supplement if stools become dark.
Rationale: Vitamin C enhances iron absorption. Calcium-containing products and antacids can
decrease absorption. Dark stools are an expected effect of oral iron and do not usually indicate
a need to discontinue therapy.
8. A client at 32 weeks' gestation reports painless vaginal bleeding. Which condition
should the nurse suspect first?
A. Placental abruption
B. Placenta previa
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Preterm labor
Rationale: Placenta previa classically presents with painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester. Placental abruption more commonly causes painful bleeding
accompanied by uterine tenderness or rigidity.
9. A client with suspected placenta previa has vaginal bleeding. Which nursing
action should be avoided?
A. Monitoring maternal vital signs
B. Assessing fetal status
C. Establishing intravenous access as prescribed
D. Performing a digital vaginal examination
Rationale: A digital vaginal examination can disrupt a placenta located over or near the cervical
opening and cause severe hemorrhage. Maternal and fetal assessment and preparation for
treatment are appropriate.
, 10. A pregnant client suddenly develops severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness,
and dark vaginal bleeding. Which complication is most consistent with these
findings?
A. Placenta previa
B. Placental abruption
C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
D. Cervical insufficiency
Rationale: Placental abruption involves premature separation of the placenta and commonly
presents with painful vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and increased uterine tone. Placenta
previa typically produces painless bleeding.
11. A client at 30 weeks' gestation has a blood pressure of 168/112 mm Hg, severe
headache, and visual disturbances. What is the nurse's priority?
A. Encourage ambulation.
B. Provide a high-sodium snack.
C. Recognize the findings as severe hypertension requiring immediate evaluation and
intervention.
D. Reassure the client that these symptoms are common in pregnancy.
Rationale: Severe hypertension with neurologic symptoms suggests severe preeclampsia and
creates significant maternal and fetal risk. Immediate assessment and treatment are required to
reduce complications such as seizure, stroke, placental abruption, and fetal compromise.
12. Magnesium sulfate is prescribed for a client with severe preeclampsia. What is
the primary purpose of this medication?
A. Lower the fetal heart rate
B. Increase urine output
C. Induce labor
D. Prevent or control maternal seizures
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is used primarily for seizure prophylaxis and treatment in severe
preeclampsia and eclampsia. It is not primarily an antihypertensive or labor-induction
medication.
