HESI OB MATERNITY TEST BANK 2026/2027 |
MATERNITY NURSING | 600 VERIFIED Q&A |
DETAILED RATIONALES | NGN-ALIGNED | PASS
GUARANTEED – A+ GRADED
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE – Questions 1–100
Q1: Prenatal Care – GTPAL – Gravida 6
A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She has four living children: two born at 39 weeks, one born at
35 weeks, and one born at 34 weeks. She had one miscarriage at 10 weeks. What is her GTPAL?
A. G6 T2 P2 A1 L4
B. G6 T2 P1 A1 L4
C. G5 T2 P2 A1 L4
D. G6 T3 P1 A1 L4
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gravida = 6 (total pregnancies). Term = 2 (births after 37 weeks). Preterm = 2 (births 20–
37 weeks). Abortions = 1 (miscarriage). Living = 4. So G6 T2 P2 A1 L4. [100% CORRECT]
Q2: Prenatal Nutrition – Folic Acid – Dose
A nurse is teaching a client about folic acid. The recommended daily intake of folic acid for a
pregnant woman is:
A. 200 mcg
B. 400 mcg
C. 600 mcg
D. 1000 mcg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The recommended folic acid intake during pregnancy is 600 mcg daily. For women with a
history of neural tube defects, 4000 mcg is recommended. [100% CORRECT]
Q3: Prenatal Assessment – Chadwick's Sign
A nurse notes a bluish-purple discoloration of the cervix and vagina during pregnancy. This is known
as:
A. Goodell's sign
B. Chadwick's sign
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C. Hegar's sign
D. Homans' sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chadwick's sign is a bluish-purple discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva due to
increased vascularity. It appears at 6–8 weeks. [100% CORRECT]
Q4: Prenatal Testing – Nonstress Test – Reactive
A nonstress test is considered reactive when:
A. Two accelerations of 15 bpm for 15 seconds occur in 20 minutes
B. Late decelerations occur with contractions
C. No accelerations occur in 40 minutes
D. Variable decelerations occur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Reactive NST: two accelerations of at least 15 bpm lasting at least 15 seconds in a 20-
minute period. Nonreactive requires further testing (BPP or CST). [100% CORRECT]
Q5: Prenatal Discomforts – Nausea – Management
A client in her first trimester reports nausea. Which suggestion by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Eat three large meals daily
B. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed
C. Drink fluids with meals
D. Avoid all protein
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Eating dry crackers or toast before rising can help with morning sickness. Small frequent
meals, avoiding fluids with meals, and avoiding greasy foods also help. [100% CORRECT]
Q6: Prenatal Warning Signs – Danger Signs
Which of the following is a danger sign in pregnancy that should be reported immediately?
A. Mild ankle edema
B. Vaginal bleeding
C. Occasional heartburn
D. Braxton Hicks contractions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vaginal bleeding at any time in pregnancy is a danger sign and should be reported
immediately. Mild edema, heartburn, and Braxton Hicks are common discomforts. [100% CORRECT]
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Q7: Prenatal Care – RhoGAM – Timing
A client who is Rh-negative and unsensitized should receive RhoGAM at:
A. 12 weeks and 24 weeks
B. 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum
C. Only after delivery
D. Only if the baby is Rh-negative
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: RhoGAM is given at 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum if the infant is Rh-positive.
It prevents Rh sensitization. [100% CORRECT]
Q8: Prenatal Education – Kegel Exercises
A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about Kegel exercises. The nurse should explain that these
exercises strengthen the:
A. Abdominal muscles
B. Pelvic floor muscles
C. Back muscles
D. Leg muscles
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Kegel exercises strengthen the pubococcygeus (pelvic floor) muscles, which can help
prevent urinary incontinence and improve delivery. [100% CORRECT]
Q9: Prenatal Nutrition – Calcium
A pregnant client should increase her intake of which nutrient to support fetal bone development?
A. Iron
B. Calcium
C. Vitamin C
D. Sodium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Calcium (1000–1300 mg/day) is essential for fetal bone and teeth development. If
maternal intake is inadequate, calcium is drawn from maternal bones. [100% CORRECT]
Q10: Prenatal Assessment – Quickening
A client reports feeling fetal movement for the first time. The nurse documents this as:
A. Lightening
B. Quickening
C. Braxton Hicks
D. Ballottement
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Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Quickening is the first perception of fetal movement, typically felt between 16–20 weeks
in primigravidas. Lightening is descent of the fetus. [100% CORRECT]
Q11: Prenatal Testing – Glucose Tolerance Test – 1 Hour
A client is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks. The nurse should instruct the
client to:
A. Fast for 12 hours before the test
B. Eat a normal breakfast before the test
C. Drink a glucose solution and have blood drawn 1 hour later
D. Avoid all fluids for 8 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The 1-hour GTT is a screening test. The client drinks a 50-g glucose solution, and blood is
drawn 1 hour later. No fasting is required for the 1-hour test. [100% CORRECT]
Q12: Prenatal Discomforts – Backache
A pregnant client reports lower back pain. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Wear high-heeled shoes
B. Sleep on a soft mattress
C. Perform pelvic tilt exercises
D. Avoid all exercise
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pelvic tilt exercises help strengthen abdominal muscles and relieve back pain. Wearing
low-heeled shoes, sleeping on a firm mattress, and gentle exercise are also recommended. [100%
CORRECT]
Q13: Prenatal Education – Breastfeeding
A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about breastfeeding. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. "I should feed my baby every 4 hours."
B. "I should feed on demand, about 8–12 times per day."
C. "I should give formula at night."
D. "I should limit feeding to 10 minutes per breast."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Breastfeeding should be on demand, typically 8–12 times per day in the newborn period.
This supports milk supply and infant weight gain. [100% CORRECT]