ATI MEDICAL SURGICAL-A ACTUAL PRACTICE
EXAM WITH WELL ELABORATED AND MOST
TESTED REAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY 2026-2027
Q&A 100% GUARANTEED PASS A+ INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is admitting a client who has a suspected myocardial infarction (MI)
and a history of angina. Which of the following findings will help the nurse
distinguish stable angina from an MI?
A. The pain of an MI resolves in less than 15 min.
B. Stable angina can be relieved with rest and nitroglycerin.
C. The type of activity that causes an MI can be identified.
D. Stable angina can occur for longer than 30 min.
Stable angina is relieved by rest and nitroglycerin. Chest pain from an MI is not
relieved by nitrates or rest. The pain of an MI typically lasts longer than 15
minutes and is not predictable by activity type.
2. A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for a client being evaluated for a
myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following laboratory studies are likely to
show elevations if the MI occurred within the last 6 hours? Select all that apply.
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I
,C. Troponin T
D. Myoglobin
E. BNP
CK-MB begins to increase within a few hours after an MI. Troponin I and
Troponin T are specific to cardiac muscle tissue and increase within 4 to 6 hours
after an MI. Myoglobin indicates muscle damage and starts to increase within 1
to 3 hours of myocardial damage. BNP is a marker for heart failure, not acute
MI.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an SpO₂ of
88% on room air and is using accessory muscles to breathe. What is the priority
action?
A. Administer high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
B. Administer low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula at 1-2 L/min
C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
D. Place in supine position
Clients with COPD rely on hypoxic drive to breathe. High-flow O₂ can suppress
respiration and cause CO₂ narcosis. Low-flow O₂ (1-2 L/min) maintains SpO₂
88-92% safely while reducing work of breathing.
4. A client with cirrhosis develops confusion and asterixis. Ammonia level is
elevated. What is the priority intervention?
A. Restrict all protein intake
B. Administer lactulose as prescribed
C. Increase IV fluids
D. Prepare for paracentesis
,Lactulose acidifies the colon, trapping ammonia (NH₃ → NH₄⁺) for excretion.
Current guidelines recommend adequate—not restricted—protein to prevent
catabolism. Paracentesis treats ascites, not encephalopathy.
5. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) has a serum potassium of 6.0 mEq/L and
peaked T waves on ECG. What is the priority action?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene orally
B. Administer IV calcium gluconate
C. Give furosemide IV
D. Restrict dietary potassium
IV calcium gluconate stabilizes the myocardium within minutes to prevent life-
threatening dysrhythmias. Insulin/glucose and albuterol shift K⁺ into cells.
Kayexalate removes K⁺ but acts slowly. Dietary restriction is long-term
management.
6. On postoperative day 1 after abdominal surgery, a client has absent bowel
sounds, abdominal distension, and nausea. What condition is suspected?
A. Bowel obstruction
B. Paralytic ileus
C. Peritonitis
D. Gastroenteritis
Paralytic ileus—common after abdominal surgery—is characterized by absent
bowel sounds, distension, and nausea due to temporary loss of peristalsis.
Obstruction presents with high-pitched bowel sounds above the obstruction.
7. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the
following findings indicates a potential adverse effect of this medication?
, A. Serum potassium 3.0 mEq/L
B. Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg
C. Urine output 100 mL/hr
D. Weight loss of 1 kg in 1 day
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in
the ascending loop of Henle, leading to increased excretion of water, sodium,
chloride, and potassium. Hypokalemia (serum potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) is a
common and potentially serious adverse effect that increases the risk of cardiac
arrhythmias.
8. A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following
laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
A. Elevated serum amylase and lipase
B. Decreased serum calcium
C. Elevated blood glucose
D. All of the above
Acute pancreatitis is characterized by inflammation of the pancreas, leading to
release of pancreatic enzymes into the bloodstream. Serum amylase and lipase
are typically elevated. Hypocalcemia occurs due to saponification of fats in the
abdominal cavity, which binds calcium. Hyperglycemia results from impaired
insulin secretion due to islet cell damage and increased glucagon release.
9. A client with COPD is prescribed oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Use oxygen only during activity
B. Keep oxygen on at all times
C. Remove oxygen during meals
EXAM WITH WELL ELABORATED AND MOST
TESTED REAL PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND 100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES PLUS EXPERT ANSWER KEY 2026-2027
Q&A 100% GUARANTEED PASS A+ INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is admitting a client who has a suspected myocardial infarction (MI)
and a history of angina. Which of the following findings will help the nurse
distinguish stable angina from an MI?
A. The pain of an MI resolves in less than 15 min.
B. Stable angina can be relieved with rest and nitroglycerin.
C. The type of activity that causes an MI can be identified.
D. Stable angina can occur for longer than 30 min.
Stable angina is relieved by rest and nitroglycerin. Chest pain from an MI is not
relieved by nitrates or rest. The pain of an MI typically lasts longer than 15
minutes and is not predictable by activity type.
2. A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for a client being evaluated for a
myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following laboratory studies are likely to
show elevations if the MI occurred within the last 6 hours? Select all that apply.
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I
,C. Troponin T
D. Myoglobin
E. BNP
CK-MB begins to increase within a few hours after an MI. Troponin I and
Troponin T are specific to cardiac muscle tissue and increase within 4 to 6 hours
after an MI. Myoglobin indicates muscle damage and starts to increase within 1
to 3 hours of myocardial damage. BNP is a marker for heart failure, not acute
MI.
3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an SpO₂ of
88% on room air and is using accessory muscles to breathe. What is the priority
action?
A. Administer high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask
B. Administer low-flow oxygen via nasal cannula at 1-2 L/min
C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
D. Place in supine position
Clients with COPD rely on hypoxic drive to breathe. High-flow O₂ can suppress
respiration and cause CO₂ narcosis. Low-flow O₂ (1-2 L/min) maintains SpO₂
88-92% safely while reducing work of breathing.
4. A client with cirrhosis develops confusion and asterixis. Ammonia level is
elevated. What is the priority intervention?
A. Restrict all protein intake
B. Administer lactulose as prescribed
C. Increase IV fluids
D. Prepare for paracentesis
,Lactulose acidifies the colon, trapping ammonia (NH₃ → NH₄⁺) for excretion.
Current guidelines recommend adequate—not restricted—protein to prevent
catabolism. Paracentesis treats ascites, not encephalopathy.
5. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) has a serum potassium of 6.0 mEq/L and
peaked T waves on ECG. What is the priority action?
A. Administer sodium polystyrene orally
B. Administer IV calcium gluconate
C. Give furosemide IV
D. Restrict dietary potassium
IV calcium gluconate stabilizes the myocardium within minutes to prevent life-
threatening dysrhythmias. Insulin/glucose and albuterol shift K⁺ into cells.
Kayexalate removes K⁺ but acts slowly. Dietary restriction is long-term
management.
6. On postoperative day 1 after abdominal surgery, a client has absent bowel
sounds, abdominal distension, and nausea. What condition is suspected?
A. Bowel obstruction
B. Paralytic ileus
C. Peritonitis
D. Gastroenteritis
Paralytic ileus—common after abdominal surgery—is characterized by absent
bowel sounds, distension, and nausea due to temporary loss of peristalsis.
Obstruction presents with high-pitched bowel sounds above the obstruction.
7. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the
following findings indicates a potential adverse effect of this medication?
, A. Serum potassium 3.0 mEq/L
B. Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg
C. Urine output 100 mL/hr
D. Weight loss of 1 kg in 1 day
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in
the ascending loop of Henle, leading to increased excretion of water, sodium,
chloride, and potassium. Hypokalemia (serum potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) is a
common and potentially serious adverse effect that increases the risk of cardiac
arrhythmias.
8. A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following
laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
A. Elevated serum amylase and lipase
B. Decreased serum calcium
C. Elevated blood glucose
D. All of the above
Acute pancreatitis is characterized by inflammation of the pancreas, leading to
release of pancreatic enzymes into the bloodstream. Serum amylase and lipase
are typically elevated. Hypocalcemia occurs due to saponification of fats in the
abdominal cavity, which binds calcium. Hyperglycemia results from impaired
insulin secretion due to islet cell damage and increased glucagon release.
9. A client with COPD is prescribed oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which
instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Use oxygen only during activity
B. Keep oxygen on at all times
C. Remove oxygen during meals
