SMQT Exam Practice Test Bank | Surveyor Minimum
Qualifications Test Actual Questions & Verified Answers
Conquer the 2026-2027 CMS Surveyor Minimum Qualifications Test (SMQT) with this
comprehensive, updated practice test bank featuring actual exam-style questions and
verified answers. Master vital federal state survey agency domains, including State
Operations Manual (SOM) Appendix PP mandates, immediate jeopardy investigation
protocols, documentation principles for deficiencies, and federal healthcare conditions
of participation. Every question includes a high-density clinical and legal rationale to
sharpen your regulatory auditing precision and guarantee your official surveyor
credentials.
1. Which of the following is a key component to investigate when reviewing
unnecessary medication use in a long-term care facility?
A. Cost of the medication
B. Excessive dose, excessive duration, and adequate monitoring
C. Patient satisfaction with the medication
D. Staff preference for the medication
Rationale: Key areas to investigate for unnecessary medications include excessive dose,
excessive duration, inadequate monitoring, lack of indication for use, and use in the
presence of adverse consequences .
2. A resident on long-term antipsychotic therapy develops abnormal muscle
movements including lip smacking and tongue darting. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Akathisia
B. Dystonia
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Rationale: Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by abnormal muscle movements such as lip
smacking, tongue darting, chewing movements, and slow, aimless arm and leg
movements. It is a serious side effect of long-term antipsychotic use .
,3. What is the definition of neglect in the context of long-term care?
A. Willful infliction of injury or punishment
B. Application of physical restraints without clinical indication
C. Failure to provide goods and services necessary to avoid physical harm, mental
anguish, or mental illness
D. Financial exploitation of a resident
Rationale: Neglect is defined as the failure to provide goods and services necessary to
avoid physical harm, mental anguish, or mental illness. This differs from abuse, which
involves willful action .
4. According to the principles of Immediate Jeopardy, which statement is correct
regarding the number of individuals at risk?
A. At least three residents must be at risk
B. At least two residents must be at risk
C. Only one individual needs to be at risk
D. The entire facility must be at risk
Rationale: One of the key principles of Immediate Jeopardy is that only ONE individual
needs to be at risk for an IJ citation to be appropriate .
5. Which of the following is a required component for a citation of Immediate
Jeopardy?
A. Intent to cause harm
B. Harm, Immediacy, and Culpability
C. A written apology from the facility
D. A pattern of noncompliance over 6 months
Rationale: The three required components for identifying Immediate Jeopardy are: (1)
Harm—actual outcome or potential for serious harm; (2) Immediacy—harm likely to occur
in the very near future; and (3) Culpability—failure to act despite knowledge or
opportunity .
6. A cognitively impaired resident harms another resident due to the facility's
failure to provide adequate care and supervision. According to CMS guidance, this
should be considered:
A. Abuse by the cognitively impaired resident
B. Neglect by the entity
,C. An unavoidable accident
D. A criminal matter only
Rationale: When a cognitively impaired individual harms another resident due to the
facility's failure to provide adequate care and supervision, this constitutes neglect by the
entity, not abuse by the impaired resident who lacks capacity .
7. Which medication class is NOT reviewed in the Unnecessary Medication Review?
A. Insulin
B. Anticoagulants
C. Antidepressants without dementia
D. Antipsychotics with dementia
Rationale: The Unnecessary Medication Review includes insulin, anticoagulants, and
antipsychotics with dementia. Antidepressants without dementia are not part of this
specific review .
8. If a facility has been cited for SQC (Substandard Quality of Care) during an
abbreviated survey, what type of survey must be conducted?
A. Standard survey
B. Partial extended survey
C. State monitoring visit
D. Initial certification survey
Rationale: A partial extended survey is conducted after SQC is found during an
abbreviated standard survey or during a revisit, when SQC was not previously identified .
9. According to CMS guidance, what are the three components of a deficiency
statement?
A. Facility name, date, and signature
B. Regulatory reference, deficient practice statement, and relevant facts/findings
C. Resident name, medication list, and care plan
D. Staff name, shift, and department
Rationale: The components of a deficiency statement include the regulatory reference, a
deficient practice statement, and relevant facts and findings .
10. How many residents does the system select for unnecessary medication review
during a survey?
A. 3
B. 4
, C. *5*
D. 6
Rationale: The system selects 5 residents for unnecessary medication review. These
residents are reviewed for use of insulin, anticoagulants, and antipsychotics with
dementia .
11. What is the Food Danger Zone temperature range?
A. 50°F to 150°F
B. 41°F to 135°F
C. 32°F to 100°F
D. 45°F to 140°F
Rationale: The Food Danger Zone is 41°F to 135°F. Food should not be kept in this
temperature range for extended periods to prevent bacterial growth .
12. At what temperature must cold food be stored?
A. Below 45°F
B. Below 41°F
C. Below 50°F
D. Below 38°F
Rationale: Cold food must be stored at temperatures under 41°F to prevent bacterial
growth and ensure food safety .
13. What is the required cooking temperature for ground meat?
A. 135°F
B. 145°F
C. 155°F
D. 165°F
Rationale: Ground meat must be cooked to an internal temperature of 155°F to ensure
safety .
14. What is the cooking temperature for poultry (e.g., turkey, chicken, duck)?
A. 145°F
B. 155°F
C. 165°F
D. 175°F
Qualifications Test Actual Questions & Verified Answers
Conquer the 2026-2027 CMS Surveyor Minimum Qualifications Test (SMQT) with this
comprehensive, updated practice test bank featuring actual exam-style questions and
verified answers. Master vital federal state survey agency domains, including State
Operations Manual (SOM) Appendix PP mandates, immediate jeopardy investigation
protocols, documentation principles for deficiencies, and federal healthcare conditions
of participation. Every question includes a high-density clinical and legal rationale to
sharpen your regulatory auditing precision and guarantee your official surveyor
credentials.
1. Which of the following is a key component to investigate when reviewing
unnecessary medication use in a long-term care facility?
A. Cost of the medication
B. Excessive dose, excessive duration, and adequate monitoring
C. Patient satisfaction with the medication
D. Staff preference for the medication
Rationale: Key areas to investigate for unnecessary medications include excessive dose,
excessive duration, inadequate monitoring, lack of indication for use, and use in the
presence of adverse consequences .
2. A resident on long-term antipsychotic therapy develops abnormal muscle
movements including lip smacking and tongue darting. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Akathisia
B. Dystonia
C. Tardive dyskinesia
D. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Rationale: Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by abnormal muscle movements such as lip
smacking, tongue darting, chewing movements, and slow, aimless arm and leg
movements. It is a serious side effect of long-term antipsychotic use .
,3. What is the definition of neglect in the context of long-term care?
A. Willful infliction of injury or punishment
B. Application of physical restraints without clinical indication
C. Failure to provide goods and services necessary to avoid physical harm, mental
anguish, or mental illness
D. Financial exploitation of a resident
Rationale: Neglect is defined as the failure to provide goods and services necessary to
avoid physical harm, mental anguish, or mental illness. This differs from abuse, which
involves willful action .
4. According to the principles of Immediate Jeopardy, which statement is correct
regarding the number of individuals at risk?
A. At least three residents must be at risk
B. At least two residents must be at risk
C. Only one individual needs to be at risk
D. The entire facility must be at risk
Rationale: One of the key principles of Immediate Jeopardy is that only ONE individual
needs to be at risk for an IJ citation to be appropriate .
5. Which of the following is a required component for a citation of Immediate
Jeopardy?
A. Intent to cause harm
B. Harm, Immediacy, and Culpability
C. A written apology from the facility
D. A pattern of noncompliance over 6 months
Rationale: The three required components for identifying Immediate Jeopardy are: (1)
Harm—actual outcome or potential for serious harm; (2) Immediacy—harm likely to occur
in the very near future; and (3) Culpability—failure to act despite knowledge or
opportunity .
6. A cognitively impaired resident harms another resident due to the facility's
failure to provide adequate care and supervision. According to CMS guidance, this
should be considered:
A. Abuse by the cognitively impaired resident
B. Neglect by the entity
,C. An unavoidable accident
D. A criminal matter only
Rationale: When a cognitively impaired individual harms another resident due to the
facility's failure to provide adequate care and supervision, this constitutes neglect by the
entity, not abuse by the impaired resident who lacks capacity .
7. Which medication class is NOT reviewed in the Unnecessary Medication Review?
A. Insulin
B. Anticoagulants
C. Antidepressants without dementia
D. Antipsychotics with dementia
Rationale: The Unnecessary Medication Review includes insulin, anticoagulants, and
antipsychotics with dementia. Antidepressants without dementia are not part of this
specific review .
8. If a facility has been cited for SQC (Substandard Quality of Care) during an
abbreviated survey, what type of survey must be conducted?
A. Standard survey
B. Partial extended survey
C. State monitoring visit
D. Initial certification survey
Rationale: A partial extended survey is conducted after SQC is found during an
abbreviated standard survey or during a revisit, when SQC was not previously identified .
9. According to CMS guidance, what are the three components of a deficiency
statement?
A. Facility name, date, and signature
B. Regulatory reference, deficient practice statement, and relevant facts/findings
C. Resident name, medication list, and care plan
D. Staff name, shift, and department
Rationale: The components of a deficiency statement include the regulatory reference, a
deficient practice statement, and relevant facts and findings .
10. How many residents does the system select for unnecessary medication review
during a survey?
A. 3
B. 4
, C. *5*
D. 6
Rationale: The system selects 5 residents for unnecessary medication review. These
residents are reviewed for use of insulin, anticoagulants, and antipsychotics with
dementia .
11. What is the Food Danger Zone temperature range?
A. 50°F to 150°F
B. 41°F to 135°F
C. 32°F to 100°F
D. 45°F to 140°F
Rationale: The Food Danger Zone is 41°F to 135°F. Food should not be kept in this
temperature range for extended periods to prevent bacterial growth .
12. At what temperature must cold food be stored?
A. Below 45°F
B. Below 41°F
C. Below 50°F
D. Below 38°F
Rationale: Cold food must be stored at temperatures under 41°F to prevent bacterial
growth and ensure food safety .
13. What is the required cooking temperature for ground meat?
A. 135°F
B. 145°F
C. 155°F
D. 165°F
Rationale: Ground meat must be cooked to an internal temperature of 155°F to ensure
safety .
14. What is the cooking temperature for poultry (e.g., turkey, chicken, duck)?
A. 145°F
B. 155°F
C. 165°F
D. 175°F
