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NURS151 FINAL EXAM 1-6 WEEKS OF NOTES | NURS 151 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS STUDY GUIDE 2026/2027

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NURS151 FINAL EXAM 1-6 WEEKS OF NOTES | NURS 151 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS STUDY GUIDE 2026/2027

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NURS151 FINAL EXAM 1-6 WEEKS OF NOTES | NURS 151 QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS STUDY GUIDE 2026/2027

What is another name for osteoarthritis? - correct answer ✔✔Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)

What are the primary risk factors for developing osteoarthritis? - correct answer ✔✔Age, gender, higher
BMI, genetics, and social factors.

What is the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis? - correct answer ✔✔It involves the wear and tear of
cartilage and bone in a joint, leading to friction, bone-on-bone contact, and the formation of
osteophytes.

What are osteophytes? - correct answer ✔✔Bony growths or bone spurs that develop on normal bone in
a joint.

What is the difference between Bouchard nodes and Heberden nodes? - correct answer ✔✔Bouchard
nodes occur at the middle (proximal) joint of the digits (PIP), while Heberden nodes occur at the end
(distal) joint of the digits (DIP).

What is crepitus in the context of osteoarthritis? - correct answer ✔✔A grinding sensation or sound felt
or heard in the joint during movement.

What are the common non-pharmacologic management strategies for osteoarthritis? - correct answer
✔✔Non-weight bearing exercise (swimming), joint protection, hot/cold therapy, assistive devices, and
non-traditional therapies like acupuncture or meditation.

What nursing precaution should be taken when administering NSAIDs for osteoarthritis? - correct answer
✔✔Monitor for renal impairment.

What is the purpose of an arthroscopy? - correct answer ✔✔To insert a scope into the joint to clean out
debris, bone spurs, and synovial fluid.

What is an arthrodesis? - correct answer ✔✔A joint fusion procedure, most commonly performed in the
spine and neck.

What are the primary contraindications for joint replacement surgery? - correct answer ✔✔Infection,
arterial impairment, inability to follow post-procedural regimens, and uncontrolled comorbid conditions
like DM, HTN, or advanced osteoporosis.

What are the 6 P's checked during neurovascular assessments? - correct answer ✔✔Pain, Pallor,
Pulselessness, Paresthesia, Paralysis, and Poikilothermia.

What does the acronym R.I.C.E. stand for in post-procedure care? - correct answer ✔✔Rest, Ice,
Compression, and Elevation.

,What is the difference between intracapsular and extracapsular hip fractures? - correct answer
✔✔Intracapsular involves the femoral head or neck; extracapsular involves the intertrochanteric or
subtrochanteric regions of the long bone.

How is a comminuted fracture defined? - correct answer ✔✔A fracture where the bone is shattered into
three or more fragments, typically due to trauma.

What are the classic clinical manifestations of a hip fracture? - correct answer ✔✔Severe pain, external
rotation of the leg, muscle spasms, shortening of the leg, and reluctance to move or bear weight.

What is avascular necrosis? - correct answer ✔✔The death of bone tissue due to a lack of blood supply,
a common complication of hip fractures.

What are the primary goals of hip fracture management? - correct answer ✔✔Relieve pain, prevent
complications, improve stability, and restore function.

What is the difference between a total hip arthroplasty and a hemiarthroplasty? - correct answer
✔✔Total hip arthroplasty replaces both the ball and socket (acetabular cup and femoral head), while
hemiarthroplasty replaces only the femoral head.

What is ORIF? - correct answer ✔✔Open Reduction Internal Fixation, a surgical procedure to stabilize a
fracture using internal hardware.

Why is early mobility encouraged after an ORIF procedure? - correct answer ✔✔It promotes faster
recovery, is safer, more economical, and helps prevent complications associated with immobility.

What are some age-related risk factors for hip fractures? - correct answer ✔✔Decreased vision and
balance, decreased muscle mass, slower reaction time, mental status changes, and depression.

What medical conditions predispose an individual to fragile bones and hip fractures? - correct answer
✔✔Osteoporosis, chronic steroid use, decreased Vitamin D/Calcium, and hormonal imbalances.

What is the immediate preoperative nursing management for a hip fracture? - correct answer ✔✔Pain
management (PCAs), immobilization (traction/splinting), neurovascular checks, and administration of
prophylactic antibiotics.

What are the six 'P's of a neurovascular assessment? - correct answer ✔✔Pain, Pressure, Paresthesia,
Paralysis, Pallor, and Pulselessness.

What are the four primary hip precautions to prevent prosthesis dislocation? - correct answer ✔✔No hip
flexion >90 degrees, no adduction beyond midline, no side-lying on the operative side, and no extreme
internal/external rotation.

What is the primary purpose of Buck's traction? - correct answer ✔✔To decrease muscle spasms and
immobilize an extremity before or after internal fixation.

, What is the difference between skin and skeletal traction? - correct answer ✔✔Skin traction uses
weights attached to the skin via tape or boots; skeletal traction involves pins or screws surgically
implanted directly into the bone.

What are the four phases of fracture healing? - correct answer ✔✔Inflammatory phase, soft callus
phase, hard callus phase, and remodeling phase.

What is the clinical significance of an 'open' (compound) fracture? - correct answer ✔✔It involves an
opening in the skin, which significantly increases the risk of osteomyelitis (infection).

What are the classic clinical manifestations of compartment syndrome? - correct answer ✔✔Severe
pain, edema, ischemia, pallor/cyanosis, absent distal pulse, poikilothermia (coolness), numbness, and
paralysis.

What is the treatment for compartment syndrome? - correct answer ✔✔A fasciotomy to reduce
pressure and swelling.

What is Volkmann contracture? - correct answer ✔✔A permanent flexion contracture of the hand/wrist
caused by ischemia and muscle shortening due to compartment syndrome in the forearm.

What are the primary symptoms of fat embolism syndrome? - correct answer ✔✔Dyspnea, respiratory
distress, hypoxia, and petechiae (red dots) on the skin.

Which types of fractures are most associated with fat embolism syndrome? - correct answer ✔✔Pelvic
fractures or closed long bone fractures.

What nursing interventions are used to prevent DVT in post-op fracture patients? - correct answer
✔✔Early mobilization, use of compression stockings/devices, and administration of anticoagulants.

What does the acronym 'COCA' stand for when assessing wound drainage? - correct answer ✔✔Color,
Odor, Consistency, and Amount.

What are the signs of a hip fracture that a nurse should watch for? - correct answer ✔✔Severe pain,
inability to move the leg, and shortening/external rotation of the affected leg.

What nutritional components are emphasized for fracture healing? - correct answer ✔✔Increased
protein, calcium, fluid intake, and high fiber.

What is the difference between union, non-union, and malunion? - correct answer ✔✔Union is normal
healing; non-union is failure to heal; malunion is healing in a deformed position.

What is the primary nursing priority for a patient with an external fixation device? - correct answer
✔✔Infection prevention and regular neurovascular status checks.

Why is it important to keep knees lower than hips when sitting after hip surgery? - correct answer ✔✔To
prevent hip flexion from exceeding 90 degrees, which risks prosthesis dislocation.

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