HESI Leadership & Management
Comprehensive Final Exam
2026-2028 Testing Cycle | Newly Released
175 Q & A| Grade A+ | Guaranteed Pass
100% Correct Verified Solutions
Q1: The charge nurse is making assignments for the evening shift. Which patient should be
assigned to the LPN?
A. A patient with an acute myocardial infarction requiring continuous cardiac monitoring
B. A stable patient with a stage 2 pressure ulcer requiring a routine dressing change [CORRECT]
C. A patient on a continuous insulin drip with hourly glucose checks
D. A patient with new-onset respiratory distress requiring frequent assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the LPN can perform routine procedures on stable patients; unstable
or acute patients require RN assessment and evaluation.
Q2: The nurse manager is educating staff about the "TAPE" rule. Which of the following
functions are non-delegable? (Select all that apply.)
A. Evaluating a patient's response to a blood transfusion [CORRECT]
B. Administering a subcutaneous injection
C. Teaching a patient how to perform self-catheterization [CORRECT]
D. Developing a plan of care for a newly admitted patient [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A, C, D
Rationale: Correct because Teaching, Assessment, Planning, and Evaluation cannot be delegated;
medication administration can be delegated to LPNs.
,Q3: The nurse manager is preparing the annual budget. Which of the following would be
classified as a capital expense?
A. Monthly supply of saline flushes
B. A new electronic health record system costing $500,000 with a 10-year lifespan [CORRECT]
C. Overtime pay for holiday shifts
D. Weekly order of sterile gloves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because capital expenses are high-cost, long-term assets that exceed a set
threshold and last multiple years.
Q4: The RN is using SBAR to communicate with the provider. Which statement belongs in the
"Recommendation" section?
A. "The patient is a 55-year-old with a history of hypertension."
B. "His blood pressure is now 88/52 and he is lightheaded."
C. "I recommend starting a fluid bolus and rechecking vitals in 15 minutes." [CORRECT]
D. "He was admitted yesterday for a GI bleed."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Recommendation includes specific action requests or suggestions
based on the Assessment.
Q5: Two nurses disagree about the best approach to discharge planning. The manager brings
them together to discuss the evidence and reach a mutually agreeable solution. This is:
A. Avoiding
B. Competing
C. Collaborating [CORRECT]
D. Accommodating
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because collaboration involves open communication and joint problem-
solving to achieve a win-win resolution.
Q6: A unit uses a Patient Classification System (PCS). Which of the following best describes the
primary purpose of a PCS?
A. Count the total number of patients on the unit
B. Measure the acuity and nursing care intensity required by each patient [CORRECT]
C. Assign patients to rooms based on diagnosis
D. Track the number of admissions per shift
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Correct because a PCS measures the complexity and time required for care, guiding
staffing decisions based on patient needs.
Q7: The QI team is implementing a new protocol to reduce surgical site infections. They first
collect baseline data and design the intervention. This stage of the PDSA cycle is:
A. Plan [CORRECT]
B. Do
C. Study
D. Act
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because the Plan phase involves identifying the problem, collecting baseline
data, and designing the intervention.
Q8: A sentinel event occurs on the unit. The hospital initiates a Root Cause Analysis (RCA).
What is the primary goal of an RCA?
A. Punish the individual responsible for the error
B. Identify systemic workflow failures that contributed to the event [CORRECT]
C. Assign blame to the department manager
D. Immediately change all hospital policies
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because RCA is a retrospective, non-punitive process designed to find system
vulnerabilities.
Q9: The nurse manager is fostering a Just Culture. A nurse makes an honest medication error due
to a look-alike drug packaging. This behavior is classified as:
A. Reckless behavior
B. At-risk behavior
C. Human error [CORRECT]
D. Intentional misconduct
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because human error is an unintentional slip; under Just Culture, it is
addressed through consolation and system redesign.
, Q10: A competent adult patient refuses a recommended surgery. The nurse supports the patient's
decision. Which ethical principle is being demonstrated?
A. Autonomy [CORRECT]
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Justice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because autonomy respects the patient's right to self-determination.
Q11: A nurse is reviewing a malpractice case. The plaintiff must prove that the nurse had a legal
obligation to provide care. This element is:
A. Duty to care [CORRECT]
B. Breach of duty
C. Injury
D. Proximate cause
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because duty to care is the legal obligation the nurse had to provide care to the
patient.
Q12: A nurse tells a patient, "If you don't stay in bed, I will have to restrain you." The patient
becomes fearful. This is:
A. Battery
B. Assault [CORRECT]
C. False imprisonment
D. Negligence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because assault is the threat of harm or unwanted touching that creates fear.
Q13: The Board of Nursing (BON) exists primarily to:
A. Protect the public by enforcing nursing practice standards [CORRECT]
B. Advocate for nurses' salaries
C. Issue and renew nursing licenses
D. Discipline nurses who violate the NPA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because the BON's mission is public protection through licensure, regulation,
and discipline.
Comprehensive Final Exam
2026-2028 Testing Cycle | Newly Released
175 Q & A| Grade A+ | Guaranteed Pass
100% Correct Verified Solutions
Q1: The charge nurse is making assignments for the evening shift. Which patient should be
assigned to the LPN?
A. A patient with an acute myocardial infarction requiring continuous cardiac monitoring
B. A stable patient with a stage 2 pressure ulcer requiring a routine dressing change [CORRECT]
C. A patient on a continuous insulin drip with hourly glucose checks
D. A patient with new-onset respiratory distress requiring frequent assessment
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the LPN can perform routine procedures on stable patients; unstable
or acute patients require RN assessment and evaluation.
Q2: The nurse manager is educating staff about the "TAPE" rule. Which of the following
functions are non-delegable? (Select all that apply.)
A. Evaluating a patient's response to a blood transfusion [CORRECT]
B. Administering a subcutaneous injection
C. Teaching a patient how to perform self-catheterization [CORRECT]
D. Developing a plan of care for a newly admitted patient [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: A, C, D
Rationale: Correct because Teaching, Assessment, Planning, and Evaluation cannot be delegated;
medication administration can be delegated to LPNs.
,Q3: The nurse manager is preparing the annual budget. Which of the following would be
classified as a capital expense?
A. Monthly supply of saline flushes
B. A new electronic health record system costing $500,000 with a 10-year lifespan [CORRECT]
C. Overtime pay for holiday shifts
D. Weekly order of sterile gloves
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because capital expenses are high-cost, long-term assets that exceed a set
threshold and last multiple years.
Q4: The RN is using SBAR to communicate with the provider. Which statement belongs in the
"Recommendation" section?
A. "The patient is a 55-year-old with a history of hypertension."
B. "His blood pressure is now 88/52 and he is lightheaded."
C. "I recommend starting a fluid bolus and rechecking vitals in 15 minutes." [CORRECT]
D. "He was admitted yesterday for a GI bleed."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because Recommendation includes specific action requests or suggestions
based on the Assessment.
Q5: Two nurses disagree about the best approach to discharge planning. The manager brings
them together to discuss the evidence and reach a mutually agreeable solution. This is:
A. Avoiding
B. Competing
C. Collaborating [CORRECT]
D. Accommodating
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because collaboration involves open communication and joint problem-
solving to achieve a win-win resolution.
Q6: A unit uses a Patient Classification System (PCS). Which of the following best describes the
primary purpose of a PCS?
A. Count the total number of patients on the unit
B. Measure the acuity and nursing care intensity required by each patient [CORRECT]
C. Assign patients to rooms based on diagnosis
D. Track the number of admissions per shift
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Correct because a PCS measures the complexity and time required for care, guiding
staffing decisions based on patient needs.
Q7: The QI team is implementing a new protocol to reduce surgical site infections. They first
collect baseline data and design the intervention. This stage of the PDSA cycle is:
A. Plan [CORRECT]
B. Do
C. Study
D. Act
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because the Plan phase involves identifying the problem, collecting baseline
data, and designing the intervention.
Q8: A sentinel event occurs on the unit. The hospital initiates a Root Cause Analysis (RCA).
What is the primary goal of an RCA?
A. Punish the individual responsible for the error
B. Identify systemic workflow failures that contributed to the event [CORRECT]
C. Assign blame to the department manager
D. Immediately change all hospital policies
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because RCA is a retrospective, non-punitive process designed to find system
vulnerabilities.
Q9: The nurse manager is fostering a Just Culture. A nurse makes an honest medication error due
to a look-alike drug packaging. This behavior is classified as:
A. Reckless behavior
B. At-risk behavior
C. Human error [CORRECT]
D. Intentional misconduct
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because human error is an unintentional slip; under Just Culture, it is
addressed through consolation and system redesign.
, Q10: A competent adult patient refuses a recommended surgery. The nurse supports the patient's
decision. Which ethical principle is being demonstrated?
A. Autonomy [CORRECT]
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Justice
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because autonomy respects the patient's right to self-determination.
Q11: A nurse is reviewing a malpractice case. The plaintiff must prove that the nurse had a legal
obligation to provide care. This element is:
A. Duty to care [CORRECT]
B. Breach of duty
C. Injury
D. Proximate cause
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because duty to care is the legal obligation the nurse had to provide care to the
patient.
Q12: A nurse tells a patient, "If you don't stay in bed, I will have to restrain you." The patient
becomes fearful. This is:
A. Battery
B. Assault [CORRECT]
C. False imprisonment
D. Negligence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because assault is the threat of harm or unwanted touching that creates fear.
Q13: The Board of Nursing (BON) exists primarily to:
A. Protect the public by enforcing nursing practice standards [CORRECT]
B. Advocate for nurses' salaries
C. Issue and renew nursing licenses
D. Discipline nurses who violate the NPA
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because the BON's mission is public protection through licensure, regulation,
and discipline.
