NSG 320 Adult Health Nursing I
Exam 3 and Practice 2026/2027 –
Questions and Answers | 100%
Verified | Detailed Rationales – Pass
Guaranteed – Already Graded A+
(Instant Download)
Cardiovascular (1–12)
1. A client with heart failure reports shortness of breath when
lying flat. Which finding should the nurse expect?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular venous distension
C. Crackles in the lung bases
D. Weight loss
Answer: C. Orthopnea and basal crackles indicate left-sided heart
failure with pulmonary congestion. Peripheral edema and JVD are
right-sided signs.
2. Which lab value is most specific for acute myocardial
infarction?
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I
,C. BNP
D. Myoglobin
Answer: B. Troponin I rises within 3–6 hours, peaks at 10–24
hours, and remains elevated 7–10 days — highly specific for
cardiac muscle damage.
3. A client on furosemide has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L.
Which assessment is the priority?
A. Blood pressure
B. Cardiac rhythm
C. Respiratory rate
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B. Hypokalemia predisposes to dysrhythmias, especially
with digoxin use. Cardiac monitoring is the priority.
4. A client taking digoxin has a heart rate of 52 bpm and
reports nausea and visual halos. What should the nurse do
first?
A. Administer the digoxin
B. Hold the digoxin and notify the provider
C. Encourage fluids
D. Recheck the heart rate in 1 hour
Answer: B. These are signs of digoxin toxicity. Hold the dose,
notify the provider, and check the digoxin level.
5. Which client is at highest risk for infective endocarditis?
A. Client with a urinary tract infection
B. Client with a prosthetic heart valve
C. Client with asthma
D. Client with hypothyroidism
,Answer: B. Prosthetic valves and prior endocarditis are major risk
factors. These clients need prophylactic antibiotics before dental
procedures.
6. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which
side effect should the nurse teach about?
A. Dry cough
B. Bradycardia
C. Hyperkalemia only
D. Constipation
Answer: A. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry
cough due to bradykinin accumulation. Also monitor for
hyperkalemia and angioedema.
7. Which instruction is most important for a client with a new
stent placed via femoral access?
A. Ambulate frequently
B. Keep the affected leg straight
C. Apply heat to the site
D. Take aspirin only as needed
Answer: B. Keep the leg straight to prevent bleeding at the
access site. Monitor for hematoma, bleeding, and pulses.
8. A client with atrial fibrillation is on warfarin. Which lab
value should the nurse monitor?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Hemoglobin
, Answer: B. Warfarin therapy is monitored with INR (target usually
2–3).
9. Which finding indicates right-sided heart failure?
A. Pink frothy sputum
B. Dependent edema and JVD
C. Orthopnea
D. Crackles
Answer: B. Right-sided failure causes systemic congestion —
edema, JVD, hepatomegaly, weight gain.
10. A client reports chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin.
What should the nurse do first?
A. Give a second nitroglycerin
B. Obtain an ECG and notify the provider
C. Have the client walk to reduce anxiety
D. Administer an antacid
Answer: B. Unrelieved chest pain suggests MI. Obtain an ECG and
notify the provider immediately.
11. Which food should a client on warfarin limit?
A. Bananas
B. Spinach
C. Oranges
D. Rice
Answer: B. Spinach is high in vitamin K, which antagonizes
warfarin. Keep intake consistent.
12. A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) reports pain
relieved by dangling the leg. This is called:
Exam 3 and Practice 2026/2027 –
Questions and Answers | 100%
Verified | Detailed Rationales – Pass
Guaranteed – Already Graded A+
(Instant Download)
Cardiovascular (1–12)
1. A client with heart failure reports shortness of breath when
lying flat. Which finding should the nurse expect?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular venous distension
C. Crackles in the lung bases
D. Weight loss
Answer: C. Orthopnea and basal crackles indicate left-sided heart
failure with pulmonary congestion. Peripheral edema and JVD are
right-sided signs.
2. Which lab value is most specific for acute myocardial
infarction?
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I
,C. BNP
D. Myoglobin
Answer: B. Troponin I rises within 3–6 hours, peaks at 10–24
hours, and remains elevated 7–10 days — highly specific for
cardiac muscle damage.
3. A client on furosemide has a potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L.
Which assessment is the priority?
A. Blood pressure
B. Cardiac rhythm
C. Respiratory rate
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B. Hypokalemia predisposes to dysrhythmias, especially
with digoxin use. Cardiac monitoring is the priority.
4. A client taking digoxin has a heart rate of 52 bpm and
reports nausea and visual halos. What should the nurse do
first?
A. Administer the digoxin
B. Hold the digoxin and notify the provider
C. Encourage fluids
D. Recheck the heart rate in 1 hour
Answer: B. These are signs of digoxin toxicity. Hold the dose,
notify the provider, and check the digoxin level.
5. Which client is at highest risk for infective endocarditis?
A. Client with a urinary tract infection
B. Client with a prosthetic heart valve
C. Client with asthma
D. Client with hypothyroidism
,Answer: B. Prosthetic valves and prior endocarditis are major risk
factors. These clients need prophylactic antibiotics before dental
procedures.
6. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which
side effect should the nurse teach about?
A. Dry cough
B. Bradycardia
C. Hyperkalemia only
D. Constipation
Answer: A. ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry
cough due to bradykinin accumulation. Also monitor for
hyperkalemia and angioedema.
7. Which instruction is most important for a client with a new
stent placed via femoral access?
A. Ambulate frequently
B. Keep the affected leg straight
C. Apply heat to the site
D. Take aspirin only as needed
Answer: B. Keep the leg straight to prevent bleeding at the
access site. Monitor for hematoma, bleeding, and pulses.
8. A client with atrial fibrillation is on warfarin. Which lab
value should the nurse monitor?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Hemoglobin
, Answer: B. Warfarin therapy is monitored with INR (target usually
2–3).
9. Which finding indicates right-sided heart failure?
A. Pink frothy sputum
B. Dependent edema and JVD
C. Orthopnea
D. Crackles
Answer: B. Right-sided failure causes systemic congestion —
edema, JVD, hepatomegaly, weight gain.
10. A client reports chest pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin.
What should the nurse do first?
A. Give a second nitroglycerin
B. Obtain an ECG and notify the provider
C. Have the client walk to reduce anxiety
D. Administer an antacid
Answer: B. Unrelieved chest pain suggests MI. Obtain an ECG and
notify the provider immediately.
11. Which food should a client on warfarin limit?
A. Bananas
B. Spinach
C. Oranges
D. Rice
Answer: B. Spinach is high in vitamin K, which antagonizes
warfarin. Keep intake consistent.
12. A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) reports pain
relieved by dangling the leg. This is called:
