ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN EXAM WITH
VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS||
ALREADY GRADED A+|| LATEST VERSION
2026
ANTEPARTUM NURSING CARE
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks of gestation who reports
occasional mild contractions. Which finding should the nurse identify as a
sign of preterm labor?
Answer: Cervical dilation of 2 cm with 50% effacement. Cervical changes
before 37 weeks are key indicators of preterm labor. Irregular contractions that
subside with rest are typically Braxton Hicks. A fetal heart rate of 140/min with
moderate variability is reassuring. Urinary frequency is a common discomfort
of pregnancy and not indicative of preterm labor.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and is
receiving IV fluid replacement. Which finding should the nurse report to
the provider?
Answer: BUN 25 mg/dL. An elevated BUN indicates dehydration and
inadequate fluid replacement. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL, urine output of 280
mL within 8 hours, and urine negative for ketones are expected findings.
3. A nurse is providing teaching about family planning to a client who has a
new prescription for a diaphragm. Which statement should the nurse
include?
Answer: Leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse. The
diaphragm should remain in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure
effective contraception. It should be replaced every 2 years, not 5. Oil-based
products should be avoided as they can damage the latex. The diaphragm should
be inserted with an empty bladder.
4. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is in the first
trimester. The client's health record includes G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should
the nurse interpret this information?
,Answer: The client has delivered one newborn at term (T1), has had no preterm
deliveries (P0), has had one miscarriage (A1), and has one living child (L1).
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and states that her last
menstrual period was April 1st. Which is the client's estimated date of
delivery using Nagele's Rule?
Answer: January 8. April 1st minus 3 months plus 7 days and 1 year equals
January 8 of the following year.
6. A nurse in an infertility clinic is providing care to a couple who has been
unable to conceive for 18 months. Which data should be included in the
assessment? (Select all that apply.)
Answer: Occupational history (exposure to teratogenic substances), menstrual
history (identifies hormone-related patterns), and childhood infectious diseases
(mumps in the male partner can cause infertility). History of falls and recent
blood transfusions are not relevant to infertility assessment.
7. A nurse is teaching a client during the first prenatal visit. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
Answer: "A Doppler device can detect your baby's heart rate at 12 weeks." A
Doppler device can detect fetal heart tones as early as 10-12 weeks. A fetal
stethoscope can first detect heart rate at 20 weeks. Gender can be determined by
ultrasound at 16-20 weeks. Quickening (first fetal movement) is felt at about
16-20 weeks.
8. A nurse is caring for a prenatal client who has parvovirus B19. Which
action should the nurse take?
Answer: Schedule an ultrasound examination. Serial ultrasound examinations
monitor for fetal hydrops, which can develop due to parvovirus B19. The virus
can cause miscarriage, severe fetal anemia, and hydrops fetalis. Antiviral
medication is not indicated.
9. A nurse is teaching a client at 10 weeks of gestation about nutrition
during pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
Answer: "I should take 600 micrograms of folic acid each day." Folic acid is
essential to prevent neural tube defects. Protein intake should increase to 71
grams daily, not 60. Water intake should be 2-3 liters daily. Caloric intake
should increase by 340 calories in the second trimester and 452 in the third, not
300 in the first trimester.
10. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation. Which
finding should the nurse report?
Answer: Blood pressure of 138/88 mm Hg on two separate readings. A blood
,pressure of 140/90 mm Hg or higher on two occasions indicates hypertension
and may suggest preeclampsia. Normal blood pressure in pregnancy is less than
120/80 mm Hg.
11. A client at 33 weeks' gestation presents with sudden onset of severe,
constant abdominal pain and dark vaginal bleeding. The uterus is firm and
tender to palpation. Which condition is most likely?
Answer: Placental abruption. Classic signs include painful, dark red bleeding,
uterine hypertonicity, and a rigid, tender uterus. Placenta previa presents with
painless, bright red bleeding and a soft uterus.
12. A client at 32 weeks gestation reports sudden painless vaginal bleeding.
Which condition should the nurse suspect?
Answer: Placenta previa. Painless bright red bleeding is characteristic of
placenta previa. Placental abruption typically presents with painful bleeding and
a rigid, tender uterus.
13. A nurse is providing teaching to a client at 10 weeks of gestation about
nutrition during pregnancy. Which statement indicates understanding?
Answer: "I should take 600 micrograms of folic acid each day."
14. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 26 weeks of gestation. Which
finding should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Fundal height of 30 cm. Fundal height should correspond closely to
gestational age in weeks (22-26 cm at 26 weeks). A fundal height significantly
larger than expected may indicate polyhydramnios, multiple gestation, or
macrosomia.
15. A nurse is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV to a
client in preterm labor. Available is 20 g magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of
D5W. How many mL/hr should the nurse set the IV pump?
Answer: 50 mL/hr. 2 g/hr ÷ 20 g × 500 mL = 50 mL/hr.
16. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 34 weeks gestation and has a
prescription for terbutaline for preterm labor. Which statement by the
client is the priority?
Answer: "My heart feels like it is racing." Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic
agonist that can cause tachycardia, palpitations, and cardiac arrhythmias. This
requires immediate assessment.
17. A client at 24 weeks' gestation with a history of a previous preterm
birth at 30 weeks is at highest risk for which complication?
Answer: Recurrent preterm labor. A history of preterm birth is a major risk
factor for recurrent preterm labor in subsequent pregnancies.
, 18. A nurse is caring for a client who has eclampsia and just had a tonic-
clonic seizure. After turning the client's head to the side, which action
should the nurse take next?
Answer: Give oxygen at 10 L/min via face mask. After seizure, maintaining
airway and oxygenation is priority. Administering magnesium sulfate would be
next but oxygen comes first. Inserting a urinary catheter, keeping the
environment quiet, and dimming lights are secondary interventions.
19. A nurse is teaching a client with pre-eclampsia who is scheduled to
receive magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion about expected
adverse effects. Which adverse effect should the nurse include?
Answer: Feeling of warmth. Magnesium sulfate causes vasodilation, which
produces a feeling of warmth. It decreases blood pressure (not elevates it) and
causes CNS depression (not hyperactivity). Generalized pruritus is not a typical
adverse effect.
20. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preeclampsia and has
a new prescription for IV magnesium sulfate. Which medication should the
nurse anticipate administering if the client develops magnesium toxicity?
Answer: Calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium
sulfate toxicity. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive. Medroxyprogesterone is a
contraceptive. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic.
21. A nurse is administering IV magnesium sulfate to a client. Which
manifestation indicates magnesium toxicity?
Answer: Respirations 11/min. A respiratory rate of less than 12/min indicates
magnesium toxicity. Other signs include absent deep tendon reflexes, oliguria,
and decreased level of consciousness.
22. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a newly admitted client who
is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which condition is an indication for fetal
assessment using electronic fetal monitoring?
Answer: Oligohydramnios. Oligohydramnios (decreased amniotic fluid) is an
indication for fetal monitoring due to increased risk of cord compression and
fetal distress. Hyperemesis gravidarum, leukorrhea, and periodic tingling of
fingers are not indications for electronic fetal monitoring.
23. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and has a
positive contraction stress test. For which diagnostic test should the nurse
prepare the client?
Answer: Biophysical profile (BPP). A positive contraction stress test indicates
fetal distress and requires further evaluation with a BPP, which combines
VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS||
ALREADY GRADED A+|| LATEST VERSION
2026
ANTEPARTUM NURSING CARE
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 32 weeks of gestation who reports
occasional mild contractions. Which finding should the nurse identify as a
sign of preterm labor?
Answer: Cervical dilation of 2 cm with 50% effacement. Cervical changes
before 37 weeks are key indicators of preterm labor. Irregular contractions that
subside with rest are typically Braxton Hicks. A fetal heart rate of 140/min with
moderate variability is reassuring. Urinary frequency is a common discomfort
of pregnancy and not indicative of preterm labor.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has hyperemesis gravidarum and is
receiving IV fluid replacement. Which finding should the nurse report to
the provider?
Answer: BUN 25 mg/dL. An elevated BUN indicates dehydration and
inadequate fluid replacement. Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL, urine output of 280
mL within 8 hours, and urine negative for ketones are expected findings.
3. A nurse is providing teaching about family planning to a client who has a
new prescription for a diaphragm. Which statement should the nurse
include?
Answer: Leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse. The
diaphragm should remain in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure
effective contraception. It should be replaced every 2 years, not 5. Oil-based
products should be avoided as they can damage the latex. The diaphragm should
be inserted with an empty bladder.
4. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a client who is in the first
trimester. The client's health record includes G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should
the nurse interpret this information?
,Answer: The client has delivered one newborn at term (T1), has had no preterm
deliveries (P0), has had one miscarriage (A1), and has one living child (L1).
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and states that her last
menstrual period was April 1st. Which is the client's estimated date of
delivery using Nagele's Rule?
Answer: January 8. April 1st minus 3 months plus 7 days and 1 year equals
January 8 of the following year.
6. A nurse in an infertility clinic is providing care to a couple who has been
unable to conceive for 18 months. Which data should be included in the
assessment? (Select all that apply.)
Answer: Occupational history (exposure to teratogenic substances), menstrual
history (identifies hormone-related patterns), and childhood infectious diseases
(mumps in the male partner can cause infertility). History of falls and recent
blood transfusions are not relevant to infertility assessment.
7. A nurse is teaching a client during the first prenatal visit. Which
instruction should the nurse include?
Answer: "A Doppler device can detect your baby's heart rate at 12 weeks." A
Doppler device can detect fetal heart tones as early as 10-12 weeks. A fetal
stethoscope can first detect heart rate at 20 weeks. Gender can be determined by
ultrasound at 16-20 weeks. Quickening (first fetal movement) is felt at about
16-20 weeks.
8. A nurse is caring for a prenatal client who has parvovirus B19. Which
action should the nurse take?
Answer: Schedule an ultrasound examination. Serial ultrasound examinations
monitor for fetal hydrops, which can develop due to parvovirus B19. The virus
can cause miscarriage, severe fetal anemia, and hydrops fetalis. Antiviral
medication is not indicated.
9. A nurse is teaching a client at 10 weeks of gestation about nutrition
during pregnancy. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
Answer: "I should take 600 micrograms of folic acid each day." Folic acid is
essential to prevent neural tube defects. Protein intake should increase to 71
grams daily, not 60. Water intake should be 2-3 liters daily. Caloric intake
should increase by 340 calories in the second trimester and 452 in the third, not
300 in the first trimester.
10. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 28 weeks gestation. Which
finding should the nurse report?
Answer: Blood pressure of 138/88 mm Hg on two separate readings. A blood
,pressure of 140/90 mm Hg or higher on two occasions indicates hypertension
and may suggest preeclampsia. Normal blood pressure in pregnancy is less than
120/80 mm Hg.
11. A client at 33 weeks' gestation presents with sudden onset of severe,
constant abdominal pain and dark vaginal bleeding. The uterus is firm and
tender to palpation. Which condition is most likely?
Answer: Placental abruption. Classic signs include painful, dark red bleeding,
uterine hypertonicity, and a rigid, tender uterus. Placenta previa presents with
painless, bright red bleeding and a soft uterus.
12. A client at 32 weeks gestation reports sudden painless vaginal bleeding.
Which condition should the nurse suspect?
Answer: Placenta previa. Painless bright red bleeding is characteristic of
placenta previa. Placental abruption typically presents with painful bleeding and
a rigid, tender uterus.
13. A nurse is providing teaching to a client at 10 weeks of gestation about
nutrition during pregnancy. Which statement indicates understanding?
Answer: "I should take 600 micrograms of folic acid each day."
14. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 26 weeks of gestation. Which
finding should the nurse report to the provider?
Answer: Fundal height of 30 cm. Fundal height should correspond closely to
gestational age in weeks (22-26 cm at 26 weeks). A fundal height significantly
larger than expected may indicate polyhydramnios, multiple gestation, or
macrosomia.
15. A nurse is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate 2 g/hr IV to a
client in preterm labor. Available is 20 g magnesium sulfate in 500 mL of
D5W. How many mL/hr should the nurse set the IV pump?
Answer: 50 mL/hr. 2 g/hr ÷ 20 g × 500 mL = 50 mL/hr.
16. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 34 weeks gestation and has a
prescription for terbutaline for preterm labor. Which statement by the
client is the priority?
Answer: "My heart feels like it is racing." Terbutaline is a beta-adrenergic
agonist that can cause tachycardia, palpitations, and cardiac arrhythmias. This
requires immediate assessment.
17. A client at 24 weeks' gestation with a history of a previous preterm
birth at 30 weeks is at highest risk for which complication?
Answer: Recurrent preterm labor. A history of preterm birth is a major risk
factor for recurrent preterm labor in subsequent pregnancies.
, 18. A nurse is caring for a client who has eclampsia and just had a tonic-
clonic seizure. After turning the client's head to the side, which action
should the nurse take next?
Answer: Give oxygen at 10 L/min via face mask. After seizure, maintaining
airway and oxygenation is priority. Administering magnesium sulfate would be
next but oxygen comes first. Inserting a urinary catheter, keeping the
environment quiet, and dimming lights are secondary interventions.
19. A nurse is teaching a client with pre-eclampsia who is scheduled to
receive magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion about expected
adverse effects. Which adverse effect should the nurse include?
Answer: Feeling of warmth. Magnesium sulfate causes vasodilation, which
produces a feeling of warmth. It decreases blood pressure (not elevates it) and
causes CNS depression (not hyperactivity). Generalized pruritus is not a typical
adverse effect.
20. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preeclampsia and has
a new prescription for IV magnesium sulfate. Which medication should the
nurse anticipate administering if the client develops magnesium toxicity?
Answer: Calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium
sulfate toxicity. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive. Medroxyprogesterone is a
contraceptive. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic.
21. A nurse is administering IV magnesium sulfate to a client. Which
manifestation indicates magnesium toxicity?
Answer: Respirations 11/min. A respiratory rate of less than 12/min indicates
magnesium toxicity. Other signs include absent deep tendon reflexes, oliguria,
and decreased level of consciousness.
22. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a newly admitted client who
is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which condition is an indication for fetal
assessment using electronic fetal monitoring?
Answer: Oligohydramnios. Oligohydramnios (decreased amniotic fluid) is an
indication for fetal monitoring due to increased risk of cord compression and
fetal distress. Hyperemesis gravidarum, leukorrhea, and periodic tingling of
fingers are not indications for electronic fetal monitoring.
23. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and has a
positive contraction stress test. For which diagnostic test should the nurse
prepare the client?
Answer: Biophysical profile (BPP). A positive contraction stress test indicates
fetal distress and requires further evaluation with a BPP, which combines
