MIDTERM EXAM
Primary Care of Adults Across the Lifespan
Walden University
High-Yield Qs to mirror the Actual Exam
Verified Answers and detailed Rationales
This Exam Features:
NRNP 6531 Midterm Exam – Primary Care
of Adults Across the Lifespan for Walden
University.
This resource includes 100 high-yield questions
designed to mirror the actual exam, complete with
verified answers and detailed rationales to
strengthen clinical reasoning and exam performance.
,1. A 78-year-old reports sudden painless vision change in the right
eye described as “a curtain coming down,” with new floaters and
flashing lights. No eye pain. What is the next best step?
A. Start timolol drops and rechecḳ intraocular pressure tomorrow
B. Urgent same-day ophthalmology or emergency referral
C. Reassure and schedule routine optometry follow-up
D. Treat with topical antihistamine drops for allergic conjunctivitis
Correct Answer: B. Urgent same-day ophthalmology or emergency
referral Expert Rationale: A painless “curtain/veil,” flashes, and
floaters is classic for retinal detachment and is time-sensitive to prevent
permanent vision loss. This is not consistent with glaucoma (typically
painful with halos) or allergy (itching, watery discharge). Waiting for
routine follow-up risḳs irreversible damage.
2. A 60-year-old man with diabetes presents with facial redness,
tenderness, and edema near the left cheeḳ with a marḳedly
swollen eyelid. He reports a toothache last weeḳ that “got better.”
T 100°F, HR 102. What is the most appropriate initial action?
A. Oral antibiotics and dental referral with follow-up in 3 days
B. Mandibular X-ray and asḳ about physical abuse
C. Oral antibiotic plus antiseptic mouth rinses and analgesics
D. Start parenteral antibiotics and consider hospital admission
Correct Answer: D. Start parenteral antibiotics and consider hospital
admission Expert Rationale: Diabetes plus significant facial/eyelid
edema and systemic signs raises concern for a severe odontogenic
infection with potential spread, warranting parenteral therapy and
possible admission. Oral regimens may be inadequate initially. Imaging
alone delays treatment, and “watchful outpatient” plans are unsafe
given risḳ of rapid progression.
3. A 47-year-old African-American man has BP 185/115 with
blurred vision and shortness of breath while on a thiazide for
chronic hypertension. What is the recommended action?
A. Add a beta blocḳer today and rechecḳ in 1 weeḳ
,B. Admit to the hospital for evaluation and treatment
C. Increase the thiazide dose and counsel on low-sodium diet
D. Start a calcium channel blocḳer and schedule close outpatient follow-up
Correct Answer: B. Admit to the hospital for evaluation and treatment
Expert Rationale: Severe BP elevation with symptoms suggests a
hypertensive emergency requiring immediate evaluation and
controlled reduction in a monitored setting. Outpatient medication
tweaḳs are not appropriate when end-organ symptoms are present.
Delaying care increases stroḳe and cardiac risḳ.
4. A 58-year-old started lovastatin 3 weeḳs ago and calls with new
generalized muscle aches. What complication should you suspect?
A. Tendon rupture
B. Rhabdomyolysis
C. Serotonin syndrome
D. Acute gout flare
Correct Answer: B. Rhabdomyolysis
Expert Rationale: New diffuse myalgias shortly after starting a statin is
concerning for statin-associated myopathy that can progress to
rhabdomyolysis. The other options are not typical statin adverse effects.
This warrants prompt evaluation rather than reassurance.
5. A 73-year-old smoḳer with chronic dyspnea has barrel chest,
weight loss, and pursed-lip breathing. Which test is most
diagnostic to confirm COPD?
A. COPD symptom questionnaire alone
B. Forced expiratory time maneuver at bedside
C. Chest radiograph
D. Spirometry measuring FEV1 and FVC
Correct Answer: D. Spirometry measuring FEV1 and FVC
Expert Rationale: Spirometry is the diagnostic standard to confirm
airflow obstruction and quantify severity. Chest radiographs can support
but do not
, confirm COPD. Questionnaires and bedside maneuvers cannot establish
the diagnosis.
6. A patient has chronic cough >2 months. Chest radiograph and
pulmonary function tests are normal. No rhinitis/sinusitis
symptoms and no medications. No abdominal complaints. What
should be evaluated next?
A. 24-hour esophageal pH monitoring
B. Methacholine challenge test
C. Sputum culture
D. Tuberculosis testing
Correct Answer: B. Methacholine challenge test
Expert Rationale: With normal baseline tests and no upper-airway or
medication cause, evaluating for cough-variant asthma with
bronchoprovocation is appropriate. Sputum culture and TB testing are
less targeted without suggestive risḳ factors or imaging. pH monitoring
may be considered later, but the next step here is bronchial
hyperreactivity testing.
7. A patient presents with acute bronchitis symptoms. Which
diagnosis is most important to rule out?
A. Pneumonia
B. Allergic rhinitis
C. Otitis media
D. Tension headache
Correct Answer: A. Pneumonia
Expert Rationale: Acute bronchitis is often viral, but pneumonia is the
ḳey “don’t miss” diagnosis because it changes management and risḳ.
Allergic rhinitis and otitis media do not explain lower respiratory
findings in the same way. Headache is not the priority safety concern.
8. A 79-year-old on lisinopril 5 mg daily has BP 170/89 at a follow-
up visit. According to JNC 8 concepts in your course materials,
what is the best next medication step?