ATI RN EXAM 08/25/2026
ATI RN Adult Medical Surgical 2026 Proctored
Exam 1 Actual and Retake Versions NGN
Questions and Answers| 2026/2027 Latest
Update | Complete Chapter Questions &
Answers with Rationales | Verified Questions &
Answers | Graded A+
The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who is newly diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which
signs and symptoms should the nurse describe when teaching the client about hypoglycemia?
A) Sweating, trembling, tachycardia.
B) Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia.
C) Nausea, vomiting, anorexia.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, ATI RN EXAM 08/25/2026
D) Fruity breath, tachypnea, chest pain. - Correct Answer :A) Sweating, trembling, tachycardia.
Sweating, dizziness, and trembling are signs of hypoglycemic reactions related to the release of epinephrine as a
compensatory response to the low blood sugar (A). (B, C, and D) do not describe common symptoms of
hypoglycemia.
What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina?
A) Instruct the client to look at examiner's nose and not move his/her eyes during the exam.
B) Set ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye.
C) From a distance of 8 to 12 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil.
D) For optimum visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.
- Correct Answer :D) For optimum visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's
eye.
The client should focus on a distant object in order to promote pupil dilation. The ophthalmoscope should be set
on the 0 lens to begin (creates no correction at the beginning of the exam), and should be held in front of the
examiner's left eye when examining the client's right eye. For optimum visualization, the ophthalmoscope
should be kept within one to three inches of the client's eye (D). (A and B) describe incorrect methods for
conducting an ophthalmoscopic examination. (C) should illicit a red reflex as the light travels through the
crystalline lens to the retina.
The nurse is teaching a female client about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which
information should the nurse provide?
A) Two weeks before menstruation.
B) Vaginal mucous discharge is thick.
C) Low basal temperature.
D) First thing in the morning. - Correct Answer :A) Two weeks before menstruation.
Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins (A), and sexual intercourse should occur within 24
hours of ovulation for conception to occur. High estrogen levels occur during ovulation and increase the vaginal
mucous membrane characteristics, which become more "slippery" and stretchy, not (B). A rise in basal
temperature, not (C), signals ovulation. The timing during the day is not as significant in determining conception
as the day before and after ovulation (D).
A+ TEST BANK 2
, ATI RN EXAM 08/25/2026
During suctioning, a client with an uncuffed tracheostomy tube begins to cough violently and dislodges the
tracheostomy tube. Which action should the nurse implement first?
A) Notify the healthcare provider for reinsertion.
B) Attempt to reinsert the tracheostomy tube.
C) Position the client in a lateral position with the neck extended.
D) Ventilate client's tracheostomy stoma with a manual bag-mask. - Correct Answer :B) Attempt to reinsert the
tracheostomy tube.
The nurse should attempt to reinsert the tracheostomy tube (B) by using a hemostat to open the tracheostomy
or by grasping the retention sutures (if present) to spread the opening in insert a replacement tube (with its
obturator) into the stoma. Once in place, the obturator should immediately be removed. (A, C, and D) place the
client at risk of airway obstruction.
A male client who has never smoked but has had COPD for the past 5 years is now being assessed for cancer of
the lung. The nurse knows that he is most likely to develop which type of lung cancer?
A) Adenocarcinoma.
B) Oat-cell carcinoma.
C) Malignant melanoma.
D) Squamous-cell carcinoma. - Correct Answer :A) Adenocarcinoma.
Adenocarcinoma is the only lung cancer not related to cigarette smoking (A). It has been found to be directly
related to lung scarring and fibrosis from preexisting pulmonary disease such as TB or COPD. Both (B and D) are
malignant lung cancers related to cigarette smoking. (C) is a skin cancer and is related to exposure to sunlight,
not to lung problems.
The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which
finding should the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?
A) An increase in abdominal girth.
B) Hypertension and a bounding pulse.
C) Decreased bowel sounds.
D) Difficulty in handwriting. - Correct Answer :D) Difficulty in handwriting.
A+ TEST BANK 3
, ATI RN EXAM 08/25/2026
A daily record in handwriting may provide evidence of progression or reversal of hepatic encephalopathy leading
to coma (D). (A) is a sign of ascites. (B) are not seen with hepatic encephalopathy. (C) does not indicate an
increase in serum ammonia level which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.
A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most
important for the nurse to implement?
A) Give 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
B) Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
C) Arrange a consultation with the dietician.
D) Teach about the side effects of diuretics. - Correct Answer :B) Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
Hypokalemia (normal 3.5 to 5 mEq/L) causes changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, so it is most
important for the nurse to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring (B) to identify ventricular ectopy or other life-
threatening dysrhythmias. Potassium chloride (A) should be given after cardiac monitoring is initiated so that the
effects of potassium replacement on the cardiac rhythm can be monitored. (C and D) should be implemented
when the client is stable.
The nurse is planning care to prevent complication for a client with multiple myeloma. Which intervention is most
important for the nurse to include?
A) Safety precautions during activity.
B) Assess for changes in size of lymph nodes.
C) Maintain a fluid intake of 3 to 4 L per day.
D) Administer narcotic analgesic around the clock. - Correct Answer :C) Maintain a fluid intake of 3 to 4 L per
day.
Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells that infiltrate bone causing demineralization and
hypercalcemia, so maintaining a urinary output of 1.5 to 2 L per day requires an intake of 3 to 4 L (C) to promote
excretion of serum calcium. Although the client is at risk for pathologic fractures due to diffuse osteoporosis,
mobilization and weight bearing (A) should be encouraged to promote bone reabsorption of circulating calcium,
which can cause renal complications. (B) is a component of ongoing assessment. Chronic pain management (D)
should be included in the plan of care, but prevention of complications related to hypercalcemia is most
important.
A client has a staging procedure for cancer of the breast and ask the nurse which type of breast cancer has the
poorest prognosis. Which information should the nurse offer the client?
A+ TEST BANK 4
ATI RN Adult Medical Surgical 2026 Proctored
Exam 1 Actual and Retake Versions NGN
Questions and Answers| 2026/2027 Latest
Update | Complete Chapter Questions &
Answers with Rationales | Verified Questions &
Answers | Graded A+
The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who is newly diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which
signs and symptoms should the nurse describe when teaching the client about hypoglycemia?
A) Sweating, trembling, tachycardia.
B) Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia.
C) Nausea, vomiting, anorexia.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, ATI RN EXAM 08/25/2026
D) Fruity breath, tachypnea, chest pain. - Correct Answer :A) Sweating, trembling, tachycardia.
Sweating, dizziness, and trembling are signs of hypoglycemic reactions related to the release of epinephrine as a
compensatory response to the low blood sugar (A). (B, C, and D) do not describe common symptoms of
hypoglycemia.
What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina?
A) Instruct the client to look at examiner's nose and not move his/her eyes during the exam.
B) Set ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye.
C) From a distance of 8 to 12 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil.
D) For optimum visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.
- Correct Answer :D) For optimum visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's
eye.
The client should focus on a distant object in order to promote pupil dilation. The ophthalmoscope should be set
on the 0 lens to begin (creates no correction at the beginning of the exam), and should be held in front of the
examiner's left eye when examining the client's right eye. For optimum visualization, the ophthalmoscope
should be kept within one to three inches of the client's eye (D). (A and B) describe incorrect methods for
conducting an ophthalmoscopic examination. (C) should illicit a red reflex as the light travels through the
crystalline lens to the retina.
The nurse is teaching a female client about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which
information should the nurse provide?
A) Two weeks before menstruation.
B) Vaginal mucous discharge is thick.
C) Low basal temperature.
D) First thing in the morning. - Correct Answer :A) Two weeks before menstruation.
Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins (A), and sexual intercourse should occur within 24
hours of ovulation for conception to occur. High estrogen levels occur during ovulation and increase the vaginal
mucous membrane characteristics, which become more "slippery" and stretchy, not (B). A rise in basal
temperature, not (C), signals ovulation. The timing during the day is not as significant in determining conception
as the day before and after ovulation (D).
A+ TEST BANK 2
, ATI RN EXAM 08/25/2026
During suctioning, a client with an uncuffed tracheostomy tube begins to cough violently and dislodges the
tracheostomy tube. Which action should the nurse implement first?
A) Notify the healthcare provider for reinsertion.
B) Attempt to reinsert the tracheostomy tube.
C) Position the client in a lateral position with the neck extended.
D) Ventilate client's tracheostomy stoma with a manual bag-mask. - Correct Answer :B) Attempt to reinsert the
tracheostomy tube.
The nurse should attempt to reinsert the tracheostomy tube (B) by using a hemostat to open the tracheostomy
or by grasping the retention sutures (if present) to spread the opening in insert a replacement tube (with its
obturator) into the stoma. Once in place, the obturator should immediately be removed. (A, C, and D) place the
client at risk of airway obstruction.
A male client who has never smoked but has had COPD for the past 5 years is now being assessed for cancer of
the lung. The nurse knows that he is most likely to develop which type of lung cancer?
A) Adenocarcinoma.
B) Oat-cell carcinoma.
C) Malignant melanoma.
D) Squamous-cell carcinoma. - Correct Answer :A) Adenocarcinoma.
Adenocarcinoma is the only lung cancer not related to cigarette smoking (A). It has been found to be directly
related to lung scarring and fibrosis from preexisting pulmonary disease such as TB or COPD. Both (B and D) are
malignant lung cancers related to cigarette smoking. (C) is a skin cancer and is related to exposure to sunlight,
not to lung problems.
The nurse assesses a client with advanced cirrhosis of the liver for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. Which
finding should the nurse consider an indication of progressive hepatic encephalopathy?
A) An increase in abdominal girth.
B) Hypertension and a bounding pulse.
C) Decreased bowel sounds.
D) Difficulty in handwriting. - Correct Answer :D) Difficulty in handwriting.
A+ TEST BANK 3
, ATI RN EXAM 08/25/2026
A daily record in handwriting may provide evidence of progression or reversal of hepatic encephalopathy leading
to coma (D). (A) is a sign of ascites. (B) are not seen with hepatic encephalopathy. (C) does not indicate an
increase in serum ammonia level which is the primary cause of hepatic encephalopathy.
A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most
important for the nurse to implement?
A) Give 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
B) Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
C) Arrange a consultation with the dietician.
D) Teach about the side effects of diuretics. - Correct Answer :B) Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
Hypokalemia (normal 3.5 to 5 mEq/L) causes changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, so it is most
important for the nurse to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring (B) to identify ventricular ectopy or other life-
threatening dysrhythmias. Potassium chloride (A) should be given after cardiac monitoring is initiated so that the
effects of potassium replacement on the cardiac rhythm can be monitored. (C and D) should be implemented
when the client is stable.
The nurse is planning care to prevent complication for a client with multiple myeloma. Which intervention is most
important for the nurse to include?
A) Safety precautions during activity.
B) Assess for changes in size of lymph nodes.
C) Maintain a fluid intake of 3 to 4 L per day.
D) Administer narcotic analgesic around the clock. - Correct Answer :C) Maintain a fluid intake of 3 to 4 L per
day.
Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of plasma cells that infiltrate bone causing demineralization and
hypercalcemia, so maintaining a urinary output of 1.5 to 2 L per day requires an intake of 3 to 4 L (C) to promote
excretion of serum calcium. Although the client is at risk for pathologic fractures due to diffuse osteoporosis,
mobilization and weight bearing (A) should be encouraged to promote bone reabsorption of circulating calcium,
which can cause renal complications. (B) is a component of ongoing assessment. Chronic pain management (D)
should be included in the plan of care, but prevention of complications related to hypercalcemia is most
important.
A client has a staging procedure for cancer of the breast and ask the nurse which type of breast cancer has the
poorest prognosis. Which information should the nurse offer the client?
A+ TEST BANK 4
