• MSN 629 Exam 09/09/2026
MSN 629 Week 3 Quiz 5 – Full Questions and
Answers | 2026 Update | Graded A+; Northern
Kentucky University Guaranteed Pass and First
Attempt– (2026) Actual Questions & Answers
100% Guarantee Pass
2. 3. An infant is brought to clinic with bright erythema in the neck and flexural folds after recent treatment with
antibiotics for otitis media. What is the treatment for this condition?
e. a. 1% hydrocortisone cream to affected areas for 1 to 2 days
f. b. Oral fluconazole 6 mg/kg on day 1, then 3 mg/kg/dose for 14 days
g. c. Topical keratolytics and topical antibiotics for 7 to 10 days
h. d. Topical nystatin cream applied several times daily –
Correct Answer :ANS: D
P 1
, • MSN 629 Exam 09/09/2026
Candida skin infections can occur in intertriginous areas in the neck, axilla, and groin, and appear as a bright
erythematous rash. Topical nystatin is first-line therapy. Fifteen percent hydrocortisone is used if inflammation is
severe but not instead of topical antifungal therapy. Oral fluconazole is used if resistant to treatment.
Keratolytics and antibiotics are used to treat superficial folliculitis.
2. 4. A child who has been taking antibiotics is brought to the clinic with a rash. The parent reports that the child
had a fever associated with what looked like sunburn and now has "blisters" all over. A physical examination
shows coalescent target lesions and widespread bullae and areas of peeled skin revealing moist, red surfaces.
What will the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner do?
e. a. Consult with a pediatric intensivist for admission to a pediatric intensive care unit.
f. b. Order oral acyclovir 20 mg/kg/day in two doses for 6 to 12 months.
g. c. Prescribe systemic antihistamines and antimicrobial medications as prophylaxis.
h. d. Recommend analgesics, cool compresses, and oral antihistamines for comfort. –
Correct Answer :ANS: A
This child has symptoms consistent with toxic epidermal necrolysis, which is potentially life-threatening. Children
with symptoms should be admitted to the PICU for management. The other options are treatments for
erythema multiforme, a more benign, viral-induced rash. Oral acyclovir is given when herpes simplex infection is
possible.
2. 5. An adolescent has acne characterized by papules and pustules mostly on the forehead and chin. What will
the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner prescribe?
e. a. Azelaic acid applied daily at nighttime
f. b. Benzoyl peroxide applied twice daily
g. c. Topical erythromycin with benzoyl peroxide
h. d. Tretinoin applied nightly after washing the face
- Correct Answer :ANS: C
Topical antibiotics combined with BPO are more effective than either drug alone and are especially effective in
mild to moderate inflammatory acne or as adjunctive therapy with oral antibiotics. Azelaic acid is useful in
persons with sensitive or dark skin and used for non-inflammatory acne. Topical antibiotics are best used in
conjunction with BPO. Tretinoin is a keratolytic, useful for non-inflammatory acne.
P 2
, • MSN 629 Exam 09/09/2026
2. 6. During a well child examination of an infant, the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner notes 10 café au
lait spots on the infant's trunk. What is the potential concern associated with this finding?
e. a. Endocrine disorders
f. b. Malignancy
g. c. Neurofibromatosis
h. d. Sturge-Weber syndrome
- Correct Answer :ANS: C
Café au lait spots are significant for neurofibromatosis and should be referred if more than 5 lesions are present.
Atypical nevi are concerning for malignancy. Port-wine stains are concerning for Sturge-Weber syndrome.
Acanthosis is a sign of diabetes.
2. 7. A child is diagnosed with tinea versicolor. What is the correct management of this disorder?
e. a. Application of selenium sulfide 2.5% lotion twice weekly for 2 to 4 weeks
f. b. Oral antifungal treatment with fluconazole once weekly for 2 to 3 weeks
g. c. Sun exposure for up to an hour every day for 2 to 4 weeks
h. d. Using ketoconazole 2% shampoo on lesions twice daily for 2 to 4 weeks
- Correct Answer :ANS: A
Selenium sulfide lotion or 1% shampoo is first-line treatment for children and younger adolescents. Oral antifungal
medications are used in resistant cases in older adolescents. Sun exposure only intensifies lesions. Ketoconazole
shampoo is used on older adolescents.
2. 8. An African-American child has recurrent tinea capitis and has just developed a new area of alopecia after
successful treatment several months prior. When prescribing treatment with griseofulvin and selenium
shampoo, what else will the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner do?
e. a. Monitor CBC, LFT, and renal function during therapy.
f. b. Order oral prednisone daily for 5 to 14 days.
g. c. Perform fungal cultures on family members and pets.
h. d. Prescribe oral itraconazole or terbinafine.
P 3
, • MSN 629 Exam 09/09/2026
- Correct Answer :ANS: C
Because asymptomatic carriers may be present in the household, family members and pets should be cultured.
It is not necessary to monitor lab work with griseofulvin unless there is a change in clinical status, due to the
favorable safety profile of griseofulvin. Prednisone is used when severe inflammation is present. Oral
itraconazole or terbinafine is used if resistance to griseofulvin occurs; this child has responded to griseofulvin.
2. 9. A 4-year-old child has clusters of small, clear, tense vesicles with an erythematous base on one side of the
mouth along the vermillion border, which are causing discomfort and difficulty eating. What will the primary care
pediatric nurse practitioner recommend as treatment?
e. a. Mupirocin ointment applied to lesions 3 times daily
f. b. Oral acyclovir 20 to 40 mg/kg/dose for 7 to 10 days
g. c. Topical acyclovir applied to lesions 4 times daily
h. d. Topical diphenhydramine and magnesium hydroxide –
Correct Answer :ANS: D
This child has lesions consistent with HSV-1. Topical anesthetics may be used for comfort and may be applied
with cotton-tipped swabs. Mupirocin ointment is used for secondary bacterial infection. Oral acyclovir is used in
more severe cases and most often with HSV-2. Topical acyclovir is useful for initial genital herpes infections.
2. 10. A school-age child has several annular lesions on the abdomen characterized by central clearing with scaly,
red borders. What is the first step in managing this condition?
e. a. Fluoresce the lesions with a Wood's lamp.
f. b. Obtain fungal cultures of the lesions.
g. c. Perform KOH-treated scrapings of the lesion borders.
h. d. Treat empirically with antifungal cream. –
Correct Answer :ANS: D
Unless the diagnosis is questionable, or if treatment failure occurs, tinea corporis is treated empirically with
topical antifungal creams; therefore, it is not necessary to fluoresce the lesions, culture the lesions, or complete
KOH testing of scrapings as an initial management step.
P 4
MSN 629 Week 3 Quiz 5 – Full Questions and
Answers | 2026 Update | Graded A+; Northern
Kentucky University Guaranteed Pass and First
Attempt– (2026) Actual Questions & Answers
100% Guarantee Pass
2. 3. An infant is brought to clinic with bright erythema in the neck and flexural folds after recent treatment with
antibiotics for otitis media. What is the treatment for this condition?
e. a. 1% hydrocortisone cream to affected areas for 1 to 2 days
f. b. Oral fluconazole 6 mg/kg on day 1, then 3 mg/kg/dose for 14 days
g. c. Topical keratolytics and topical antibiotics for 7 to 10 days
h. d. Topical nystatin cream applied several times daily –
Correct Answer :ANS: D
P 1
, • MSN 629 Exam 09/09/2026
Candida skin infections can occur in intertriginous areas in the neck, axilla, and groin, and appear as a bright
erythematous rash. Topical nystatin is first-line therapy. Fifteen percent hydrocortisone is used if inflammation is
severe but not instead of topical antifungal therapy. Oral fluconazole is used if resistant to treatment.
Keratolytics and antibiotics are used to treat superficial folliculitis.
2. 4. A child who has been taking antibiotics is brought to the clinic with a rash. The parent reports that the child
had a fever associated with what looked like sunburn and now has "blisters" all over. A physical examination
shows coalescent target lesions and widespread bullae and areas of peeled skin revealing moist, red surfaces.
What will the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner do?
e. a. Consult with a pediatric intensivist for admission to a pediatric intensive care unit.
f. b. Order oral acyclovir 20 mg/kg/day in two doses for 6 to 12 months.
g. c. Prescribe systemic antihistamines and antimicrobial medications as prophylaxis.
h. d. Recommend analgesics, cool compresses, and oral antihistamines for comfort. –
Correct Answer :ANS: A
This child has symptoms consistent with toxic epidermal necrolysis, which is potentially life-threatening. Children
with symptoms should be admitted to the PICU for management. The other options are treatments for
erythema multiforme, a more benign, viral-induced rash. Oral acyclovir is given when herpes simplex infection is
possible.
2. 5. An adolescent has acne characterized by papules and pustules mostly on the forehead and chin. What will
the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner prescribe?
e. a. Azelaic acid applied daily at nighttime
f. b. Benzoyl peroxide applied twice daily
g. c. Topical erythromycin with benzoyl peroxide
h. d. Tretinoin applied nightly after washing the face
- Correct Answer :ANS: C
Topical antibiotics combined with BPO are more effective than either drug alone and are especially effective in
mild to moderate inflammatory acne or as adjunctive therapy with oral antibiotics. Azelaic acid is useful in
persons with sensitive or dark skin and used for non-inflammatory acne. Topical antibiotics are best used in
conjunction with BPO. Tretinoin is a keratolytic, useful for non-inflammatory acne.
P 2
, • MSN 629 Exam 09/09/2026
2. 6. During a well child examination of an infant, the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner notes 10 café au
lait spots on the infant's trunk. What is the potential concern associated with this finding?
e. a. Endocrine disorders
f. b. Malignancy
g. c. Neurofibromatosis
h. d. Sturge-Weber syndrome
- Correct Answer :ANS: C
Café au lait spots are significant for neurofibromatosis and should be referred if more than 5 lesions are present.
Atypical nevi are concerning for malignancy. Port-wine stains are concerning for Sturge-Weber syndrome.
Acanthosis is a sign of diabetes.
2. 7. A child is diagnosed with tinea versicolor. What is the correct management of this disorder?
e. a. Application of selenium sulfide 2.5% lotion twice weekly for 2 to 4 weeks
f. b. Oral antifungal treatment with fluconazole once weekly for 2 to 3 weeks
g. c. Sun exposure for up to an hour every day for 2 to 4 weeks
h. d. Using ketoconazole 2% shampoo on lesions twice daily for 2 to 4 weeks
- Correct Answer :ANS: A
Selenium sulfide lotion or 1% shampoo is first-line treatment for children and younger adolescents. Oral antifungal
medications are used in resistant cases in older adolescents. Sun exposure only intensifies lesions. Ketoconazole
shampoo is used on older adolescents.
2. 8. An African-American child has recurrent tinea capitis and has just developed a new area of alopecia after
successful treatment several months prior. When prescribing treatment with griseofulvin and selenium
shampoo, what else will the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner do?
e. a. Monitor CBC, LFT, and renal function during therapy.
f. b. Order oral prednisone daily for 5 to 14 days.
g. c. Perform fungal cultures on family members and pets.
h. d. Prescribe oral itraconazole or terbinafine.
P 3
, • MSN 629 Exam 09/09/2026
- Correct Answer :ANS: C
Because asymptomatic carriers may be present in the household, family members and pets should be cultured.
It is not necessary to monitor lab work with griseofulvin unless there is a change in clinical status, due to the
favorable safety profile of griseofulvin. Prednisone is used when severe inflammation is present. Oral
itraconazole or terbinafine is used if resistance to griseofulvin occurs; this child has responded to griseofulvin.
2. 9. A 4-year-old child has clusters of small, clear, tense vesicles with an erythematous base on one side of the
mouth along the vermillion border, which are causing discomfort and difficulty eating. What will the primary care
pediatric nurse practitioner recommend as treatment?
e. a. Mupirocin ointment applied to lesions 3 times daily
f. b. Oral acyclovir 20 to 40 mg/kg/dose for 7 to 10 days
g. c. Topical acyclovir applied to lesions 4 times daily
h. d. Topical diphenhydramine and magnesium hydroxide –
Correct Answer :ANS: D
This child has lesions consistent with HSV-1. Topical anesthetics may be used for comfort and may be applied
with cotton-tipped swabs. Mupirocin ointment is used for secondary bacterial infection. Oral acyclovir is used in
more severe cases and most often with HSV-2. Topical acyclovir is useful for initial genital herpes infections.
2. 10. A school-age child has several annular lesions on the abdomen characterized by central clearing with scaly,
red borders. What is the first step in managing this condition?
e. a. Fluoresce the lesions with a Wood's lamp.
f. b. Obtain fungal cultures of the lesions.
g. c. Perform KOH-treated scrapings of the lesion borders.
h. d. Treat empirically with antifungal cream. –
Correct Answer :ANS: D
Unless the diagnosis is questionable, or if treatment failure occurs, tinea corporis is treated empirically with
topical antifungal creams; therefore, it is not necessary to fluoresce the lesions, culture the lesions, or complete
KOH testing of scrapings as an initial management step.
P 4
