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NUR2063 ESSENTIALS OF PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 2 Original Exam
Questions with Answers and Rationales
Section 1: Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions)
1. A patient with left-sided heart failure is most likely to
exhibit which finding?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular vein distention
C. Crackles in the lung bases
D. Hepatomegaly
Answer: C
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary
congestion—fluid backs up into the lungs, producing
crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea. Peripheral edema,
JVD, and hepatomegaly are signs of right-sided heart
failure.
2. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of
coronary artery disease (CAD)?
A. Inflammation of the pericardium
B. Atherosclerosis causing narrowing of coronary arteries
C. Valve degeneration
D. Myocardial hypertrophy only
Answer: B
Rationale: CAD is caused by atherosclerosis—plaque
buildup (lipids, inflammatory cells, fibrous tissue) in the
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coronary arteries, reducing blood flow to the myocardium
and causing ischemia.
3. Which laboratory value is most specific for myocardial
infarction?
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I
C. Myoglobin
D. BNP
Answer: B
Rationale: Troponin I and T are highly specific to cardiac
muscle and rise 3-12 hours after MI, remaining elevated
for up to 2 weeks. CK-MB is less specific; BNP is for heart
failure.
4. A patient with atrial fibrillation is at highest risk for which
complication?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Stroke
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Pericarditis
Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation causes ineffective atrial
contraction, leading to blood stasis in the atria and clot
formation. Emboli can travel to the brain causing ischemic
stroke.
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5. What is the hallmark of essential hypertension?
A. Known secondary cause
B. Elevated blood pressure without identifiable cause
(idiopathic)
C. Hypotension
D. Normal blood pressure
Answer: B
Rationale: Essential (primary) hypertension accounts for
90-95% of cases and has no identifiable cause—it results
from interactions between genetics, diet, obesity, and
lifestyle factors.
6. A patient with an acute myocardial infarction reports
crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm. What is the
pathophysiologic cause of this pain?
A. Pericardial inflammation
B. Myocardial ischemia and anaerobic metabolism
producing lactic acid
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Esophageal spasm
Answer: B
Rationale: Ischemic myocardium undergoes anaerobic
metabolism, producing lactic acid and other pain
mediators that stimulate nerve endings, causing
characteristic chest pain.
, https://www.stuvia.com/user/performance
7. What is the primary difference between stable and
unstable angina?
A. Stable angina occurs at rest; unstable occurs with
exertion
B. Stable angina is predictable with exertion and relieved
by rest; unstable angina is unpredictable, occurs at rest,
and may progress to MI
C. They are identical
D. Unstable angina is always fatal
Answer: B
Rationale: Stable angina is predictable, occurs with
exertion, and resolves with rest/nitroglycerin. Unstable
angina is unpredictable, occurs at rest, and is a warning
sign of impending MI.
8. A patient with right-sided heart failure is most likely to
exhibit which finding?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Peripheral edema and jugular vein distention
C. Crackles
D. Orthopnea
Answer: B
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic
venous congestion—peripheral edema, JVD,
hepatomegaly, and ascites—due to the right ventricle's
inability to pump blood forward.
NUR2063 ESSENTIALS OF PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 2 Original Exam
Questions with Answers and Rationales
Section 1: Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions)
1. A patient with left-sided heart failure is most likely to
exhibit which finding?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Jugular vein distention
C. Crackles in the lung bases
D. Hepatomegaly
Answer: C
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary
congestion—fluid backs up into the lungs, producing
crackles, dyspnea, and orthopnea. Peripheral edema,
JVD, and hepatomegaly are signs of right-sided heart
failure.
2. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of
coronary artery disease (CAD)?
A. Inflammation of the pericardium
B. Atherosclerosis causing narrowing of coronary arteries
C. Valve degeneration
D. Myocardial hypertrophy only
Answer: B
Rationale: CAD is caused by atherosclerosis—plaque
buildup (lipids, inflammatory cells, fibrous tissue) in the
,https://www.stuvia.com/user/performance
coronary arteries, reducing blood flow to the myocardium
and causing ischemia.
3. Which laboratory value is most specific for myocardial
infarction?
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I
C. Myoglobin
D. BNP
Answer: B
Rationale: Troponin I and T are highly specific to cardiac
muscle and rise 3-12 hours after MI, remaining elevated
for up to 2 weeks. CK-MB is less specific; BNP is for heart
failure.
4. A patient with atrial fibrillation is at highest risk for which
complication?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Stroke
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Pericarditis
Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation causes ineffective atrial
contraction, leading to blood stasis in the atria and clot
formation. Emboli can travel to the brain causing ischemic
stroke.
,https://www.stuvia.com/user/performance
5. What is the hallmark of essential hypertension?
A. Known secondary cause
B. Elevated blood pressure without identifiable cause
(idiopathic)
C. Hypotension
D. Normal blood pressure
Answer: B
Rationale: Essential (primary) hypertension accounts for
90-95% of cases and has no identifiable cause—it results
from interactions between genetics, diet, obesity, and
lifestyle factors.
6. A patient with an acute myocardial infarction reports
crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm. What is the
pathophysiologic cause of this pain?
A. Pericardial inflammation
B. Myocardial ischemia and anaerobic metabolism
producing lactic acid
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Esophageal spasm
Answer: B
Rationale: Ischemic myocardium undergoes anaerobic
metabolism, producing lactic acid and other pain
mediators that stimulate nerve endings, causing
characteristic chest pain.
, https://www.stuvia.com/user/performance
7. What is the primary difference between stable and
unstable angina?
A. Stable angina occurs at rest; unstable occurs with
exertion
B. Stable angina is predictable with exertion and relieved
by rest; unstable angina is unpredictable, occurs at rest,
and may progress to MI
C. They are identical
D. Unstable angina is always fatal
Answer: B
Rationale: Stable angina is predictable, occurs with
exertion, and resolves with rest/nitroglycerin. Unstable
angina is unpredictable, occurs at rest, and is a warning
sign of impending MI.
8. A patient with right-sided heart failure is most likely to
exhibit which finding?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Peripheral edema and jugular vein distention
C. Crackles
D. Orthopnea
Answer: B
Rationale: Right-sided heart failure causes systemic
venous congestion—peripheral edema, JVD,
hepatomegaly, and ascites—due to the right ventricle's
inability to pump blood forward.
