Introduction to CAPS_V 391: Introduction to Gross Human
Anatomy – Comprehensive Final Exam
This examination is designed to assess your comprehensive understanding of the structural
organization of the human body. The questions are drawn from all major regions, including the
back, upper limb, lower limb, thorax, abdomen, pelvis, perineum, head, and neck. You will be
tested not only on rote memorization of structures but also on your ability to apply anatomical
knowledge to clinical scenarios, understand spatial relationships, and integrate concepts across
different body systems. Each question is followed by a set of multiple-choice answers, a correct
answer, and a detailed rationale to reinforce your learning. Good luck.
1. Which of the following bones is classified as a sesamoid bone?
A) Scapula
B) Patella
C) Calcaneus
D) Talus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sesamoid bone is a bone that develops within a tendon. The patella is the
largest sesamoid bone in the body, developing within the tendon of the quadriceps
femoris muscle. The scapula is a flat bone, the calcaneus is an irregular bone, and the
talus is a short bone.
2. Which plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?
A) Coronal plane
B) Transverse plane
C) Sagittal plane
D) Midsagittal plane
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The midsagittal (or median) plane passes through the midline of the body,
dividing it into equal right and left halves. A sagittal plane divides the body into unequal
right and left portions. The coronal plane divides into anterior and posterior, and the
transverse plane divides into superior and inferior.
3. The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Body erect
B) Palms facing posteriorly
, C) Feet flat on the floor
D) Thumbs pointing laterally
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the standard anatomical position, the body is erect, the feet are flat on the
floor, the upper limbs are by the sides, and the palms face anteriorly (forward). This
means the thumbs point laterally. A posterior-facing palm would describe the prone
position of the forearm.
4. Which of the following is a primary function of the skeletal system?
A) Production of blood cells
B) Regulation of body temperature
C) Synthesis of vitamin D
D) Facilitation of nerve impulse conduction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The skeletal system has several functions, including support, protection,
movement, mineral storage, and hematopoiesis. Hematopoiesis, the production of
blood cells, occurs in the red bone marrow. Regulation of body temperature is a function
of the integumentary system, while vitamin D synthesis begins in the skin. Nerve impulse
conduction is a function of the nervous system.
5. The vertebral column of an adult typically consists of how many vertebrae?
A) 26
B) 33
C) 24
D) 30
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An adult vertebral column typically contains 26 bones. This includes 7
cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 1 sacrum (fused from 5 sacral vertebrae), and 1 coccyx
(fused from 3-5 coccygeal vertebrae). While there are 33 vertebrae in a child, they fuse
to form the 26 bones of the adult.
6. Which of the following is a feature unique to cervical vertebrae?
A) Transverse foramina
B) Costal facets
C) Large, kidney-shaped bodies
D) Long, inferiorly-sloping spinous processes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cervical vertebrae are unique for having transverse foramina in their
transverse processes, which transmit the vertebral arteries and veins. Costal facets are
found on thoracic vertebrae, large kidney-shaped bodies are characteristic of lumbar
vertebrae, and long inferiorly-sloping spinous processes are a classic feature of thoracic
vertebrae.
,7. The dens (odontoid process) is a prominent projection found on which vertebra?
A) C1 (Atlas)
B) C2 (Axis)
C) C7 (Vertebra Prominens)
D) L5
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The dens, or odontoid process, is a superior projection from the body of the
axis (C2). It serves as a pivot point for the rotation of the atlas (C1) and the skull. The
atlas lacks a body and spinous process and instead has anterior and posterior arches.
8. The adult sacrum is formed by the fusion of which vertebrae?
A) 3-5 Coccygeal
B) 5 Lumbar
C) 5 Sacral
D) 7 Cervical
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The sacrum is a large, triangular bone formed by the fusion of the five sacral
vertebrae. The coccyx is formed by the fusion of 3-5 coccygeal vertebrae.
9. Which of the following is a bone of the appendicular skeleton?
A) Sternum
B) Rib
C) Clavicle
D) Vertebra
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The appendicular skeleton consists of the bones of the upper and lower
limbs, including the pectoral girdle (clavicle and scapula) and the pelvic girdle. The
sternum, ribs, and vertebrae are all part of the axial skeleton.
10. The glenoid cavity is a feature of which bone?
A) Scapula
B) Clavicle
C) Humerus
D) Sternum
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The glenoid cavity (or glenoid fossa) is a shallow, concave surface on the
lateral angle of the scapula. It articulates with the head of the humerus to form the
glenohumeral (shoulder) joint.
11. Which of the following structures passes through the carpal tunnel?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Median nerve
, C) Radial artery
D) Cephalic vein
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The carpal tunnel is formed by the carpal bones and the flexor retinaculum. It
transmits the flexor tendons of the digits and the median nerve. The ulnar nerve and
artery pass through Guyon's canal, which is superficial to the flexor retinaculum. The
radial artery passes through the anatomical snuffbox.
12. The femoral head articulates with which structure?
A) Tibial plateau
B) Ischial tuberosity
C) Acetabulum
D) Pubic symphysis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum of the hip bone to
form the hip joint. The tibial plateau is the articulation site for the condyles of the femur.
The ischial tuberosity is a site for muscle attachment and weight-bearing when sitting,
and the pubic symphysis is a cartilaginous joint between the two pubic bones.
13. Which of the following is a tarsal bone?
A) Scaphoid
B) Lunate
C) Calcaneus
D) Pisiform
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The tarsal bones are the bones of the ankle and rear foot. They include the
calcaneus, talus, navicular, cuboid, and the medial, intermediate, and lateral cuneiforms.
The scaphoid, lunate, and pisiform are carpal bones of the wrist.
14. A patient has a fracture that separates the greater and lesser tubercles from the shaft of
the humerus. This is a fracture of the surgical neck. Which structure is most at risk of
injury?
A) Radial nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
C) Axillary nerve
D) Median nerve
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The surgical neck of the humerus is located distal to the tubercles and is a
common site of fracture. It is in close proximity to the axillary nerve and the posterior
humeral circumflex artery. Injury to the axillary nerve can result in paralysis of the
deltoid and teres minor muscles, leading to weakness in arm abduction.
Anatomy – Comprehensive Final Exam
This examination is designed to assess your comprehensive understanding of the structural
organization of the human body. The questions are drawn from all major regions, including the
back, upper limb, lower limb, thorax, abdomen, pelvis, perineum, head, and neck. You will be
tested not only on rote memorization of structures but also on your ability to apply anatomical
knowledge to clinical scenarios, understand spatial relationships, and integrate concepts across
different body systems. Each question is followed by a set of multiple-choice answers, a correct
answer, and a detailed rationale to reinforce your learning. Good luck.
1. Which of the following bones is classified as a sesamoid bone?
A) Scapula
B) Patella
C) Calcaneus
D) Talus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A sesamoid bone is a bone that develops within a tendon. The patella is the
largest sesamoid bone in the body, developing within the tendon of the quadriceps
femoris muscle. The scapula is a flat bone, the calcaneus is an irregular bone, and the
talus is a short bone.
2. Which plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?
A) Coronal plane
B) Transverse plane
C) Sagittal plane
D) Midsagittal plane
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The midsagittal (or median) plane passes through the midline of the body,
dividing it into equal right and left halves. A sagittal plane divides the body into unequal
right and left portions. The coronal plane divides into anterior and posterior, and the
transverse plane divides into superior and inferior.
3. The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Body erect
B) Palms facing posteriorly
, C) Feet flat on the floor
D) Thumbs pointing laterally
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the standard anatomical position, the body is erect, the feet are flat on the
floor, the upper limbs are by the sides, and the palms face anteriorly (forward). This
means the thumbs point laterally. A posterior-facing palm would describe the prone
position of the forearm.
4. Which of the following is a primary function of the skeletal system?
A) Production of blood cells
B) Regulation of body temperature
C) Synthesis of vitamin D
D) Facilitation of nerve impulse conduction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The skeletal system has several functions, including support, protection,
movement, mineral storage, and hematopoiesis. Hematopoiesis, the production of
blood cells, occurs in the red bone marrow. Regulation of body temperature is a function
of the integumentary system, while vitamin D synthesis begins in the skin. Nerve impulse
conduction is a function of the nervous system.
5. The vertebral column of an adult typically consists of how many vertebrae?
A) 26
B) 33
C) 24
D) 30
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An adult vertebral column typically contains 26 bones. This includes 7
cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 1 sacrum (fused from 5 sacral vertebrae), and 1 coccyx
(fused from 3-5 coccygeal vertebrae). While there are 33 vertebrae in a child, they fuse
to form the 26 bones of the adult.
6. Which of the following is a feature unique to cervical vertebrae?
A) Transverse foramina
B) Costal facets
C) Large, kidney-shaped bodies
D) Long, inferiorly-sloping spinous processes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cervical vertebrae are unique for having transverse foramina in their
transverse processes, which transmit the vertebral arteries and veins. Costal facets are
found on thoracic vertebrae, large kidney-shaped bodies are characteristic of lumbar
vertebrae, and long inferiorly-sloping spinous processes are a classic feature of thoracic
vertebrae.
,7. The dens (odontoid process) is a prominent projection found on which vertebra?
A) C1 (Atlas)
B) C2 (Axis)
C) C7 (Vertebra Prominens)
D) L5
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The dens, or odontoid process, is a superior projection from the body of the
axis (C2). It serves as a pivot point for the rotation of the atlas (C1) and the skull. The
atlas lacks a body and spinous process and instead has anterior and posterior arches.
8. The adult sacrum is formed by the fusion of which vertebrae?
A) 3-5 Coccygeal
B) 5 Lumbar
C) 5 Sacral
D) 7 Cervical
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The sacrum is a large, triangular bone formed by the fusion of the five sacral
vertebrae. The coccyx is formed by the fusion of 3-5 coccygeal vertebrae.
9. Which of the following is a bone of the appendicular skeleton?
A) Sternum
B) Rib
C) Clavicle
D) Vertebra
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The appendicular skeleton consists of the bones of the upper and lower
limbs, including the pectoral girdle (clavicle and scapula) and the pelvic girdle. The
sternum, ribs, and vertebrae are all part of the axial skeleton.
10. The glenoid cavity is a feature of which bone?
A) Scapula
B) Clavicle
C) Humerus
D) Sternum
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The glenoid cavity (or glenoid fossa) is a shallow, concave surface on the
lateral angle of the scapula. It articulates with the head of the humerus to form the
glenohumeral (shoulder) joint.
11. Which of the following structures passes through the carpal tunnel?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Median nerve
, C) Radial artery
D) Cephalic vein
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The carpal tunnel is formed by the carpal bones and the flexor retinaculum. It
transmits the flexor tendons of the digits and the median nerve. The ulnar nerve and
artery pass through Guyon's canal, which is superficial to the flexor retinaculum. The
radial artery passes through the anatomical snuffbox.
12. The femoral head articulates with which structure?
A) Tibial plateau
B) Ischial tuberosity
C) Acetabulum
D) Pubic symphysis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum of the hip bone to
form the hip joint. The tibial plateau is the articulation site for the condyles of the femur.
The ischial tuberosity is a site for muscle attachment and weight-bearing when sitting,
and the pubic symphysis is a cartilaginous joint between the two pubic bones.
13. Which of the following is a tarsal bone?
A) Scaphoid
B) Lunate
C) Calcaneus
D) Pisiform
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The tarsal bones are the bones of the ankle and rear foot. They include the
calcaneus, talus, navicular, cuboid, and the medial, intermediate, and lateral cuneiforms.
The scaphoid, lunate, and pisiform are carpal bones of the wrist.
14. A patient has a fracture that separates the greater and lesser tubercles from the shaft of
the humerus. This is a fracture of the surgical neck. Which structure is most at risk of
injury?
A) Radial nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
C) Axillary nerve
D) Median nerve
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The surgical neck of the humerus is located distal to the tubercles and is a
common site of fracture. It is in close proximity to the axillary nerve and the posterior
humeral circumflex artery. Injury to the axillary nerve can result in paralysis of the
deltoid and teres minor muscles, leading to weakness in arm abduction.
