ATI Fundamentals CMS Proctored Exam 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Answers
ATI Fundamentals CMS Proctored Exam
210 Questions and Verified Answers | 2026-2027 Latest | 100% Correct
Blueprint: Aligned with the 2026-2027 ATI CMS Fundamentals blueprint standards, covering all seven
Fundamentals content mastery areas.
Structure: Seven sections in NCLEX blueprint order, Q1 through Q210, with one best answer (A-D) per question, a
marked correct option, and comprehensive rationales for every item.
Cognitive Levels: 30% Recall | 50% Application | 20% Analysis
Question Style: 75% Scenario-Based Clinical Judgment | 25% Direct Recall and Medication Calculation
Priority Frameworks Applied: ABCs, Maslow, Safety and Risk Reduction, Least Restrictive, Acute versus Chronic,
Unstable versus Stable, and Nursing Process (ADPIE).
Section 1: Safe, Effective Care Environment
Questions 1-50
Management of Care | Client Rights and Advocacy | Delegation and Supervision | Legal and Ethical Practice | Infection Control | Client
Safety | Incident Reporting | Prioritization Frameworks
Q1: A nurse is reviewing the steps of the nursing process with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of
the following sequences correctly identifies the five steps of the nursing process in order?
A. Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation [CORRECT]
B. Assessment, Planning, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation
C. Evaluation, Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation
D. Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Evaluation, Implementation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nursing process follows the sequence of Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation,
and Evaluation (ADPIE), which provides the framework for delivering client-centered, evidence-based care.
Assessment always comes first because complete data collection is required before any problem can be
identified. Placing Planning before Diagnosis, or Evaluation before Implementation, reflects a
misunderstanding of how clinical judgments are formed and revised.
Q2: A nurse receives shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A. A client who had a hip replacement 2 days ago and reports constipation
B. A client awaiting discharge who requests teaching about wound care
C. A client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery and has new restlessness with an
oxygen saturation of 88 percent [CORRECT]
D. A client with diabetes who has a routine fasting blood glucose of 110 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Using the ABC framework and the principle of assessing unstable clients first, the postoperative
client with new restlessness and an oxygen saturation of 88 percent shows evidence of potential hypoxemia
or respiratory compromise and requires immediate assessment. Prioritization rules require the nurse to
address airway, breathing, and circulation before comfort or teaching needs. Constipation, discharge
teaching, and a stable glucose of 110 mg/dL are important but nonurgent and can be addressed after the
unstable client is stabilized.
Fundamentals Content Mastery Series | Complete Exam with Rationales 1
,ATI Fundamentals CMS Proctored Exam 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Answers
Q3: A nurse is assigned to obtain informed consent from a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. Which of
the following actions describes the nurse's role in the informed consent process?
A. Explaining the surgical technique in detail so the client can consent without the provider
B. Signing the consent form as the person who will perform the procedure
C. Determining whether the client understands, witnessing the signature, and contacting the provider if
the client has remaining questions [CORRECT]
D. Signing the consent form on behalf of the client who is sedated but previously agreed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's role in informed consent is to witness the client's signature, confirm that the client
appears competent and is signing voluntarily, and verify that the provider explained the procedure, risks,
benefits, and alternatives. The provider, not the nurse, is responsible for explaining the surgical procedure
and for performing it. If the client still has questions, the nurse should contact the provider rather than
answer independently, and a sedated client may not legally provide consent.
Q4: A nurse is caring for a confused older adult client who is pulling at the intravenous catheter and
attempting to climb out of bed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Apply a wrist restraint after obtaining a provider prescription
B. Ask a family member to stay with the client around the clock
C. Reorient the client, move the client closer to the nursing station, and try nonrestrictive interventions
[CORRECT]
D. Request a prescription for a benzodiazepine to keep the client calm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The least restrictive intervention principle requires the nurse to attempt alternatives first, such as
reorientation, repositioning the client near the nursing station, involving family, and removing the triggering
stimulus. Restraints are a last resort and require a provider prescription only after nonrestrictive measures
fail. Requesting a sedative to chemically restrain the client, or relying on an around-the-clock family
member before trying unit interventions, contradicts the least restrictive standard that guides restraint use.
Q5: A nurse is at a community event when a neighbor asks about the condition of a mutual friend who was
admitted to the hospital. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. Share general information about the diagnosis because the nurse is off duty
B. Confirm the admission but decline to give details
C. State that the nurse is not permitted to disclose whether any person is a client in the facility
[CORRECT]
D. Suggest the neighbor call the unit directly and ask the charge nurse
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: HIPAA prohibits the nurse from revealing even the fact that a person is a client without
authorization, so the correct response is to decline to confirm or deny the admission. Sharing general
diagnosis information still breaches confidentiality, and off-duty status does not remove the obligation to
protect protected health information. Directing the neighbor to call the unit is also inappropriate because
staff cannot release information to callers who are not authorized representatives.
Fundamentals Content Mastery Series | Complete Exam with Rationales 2
,ATI Fundamentals CMS Proctored Exam 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Answers
Q6: A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is assigning tasks for the shift. Which of the following tasks should
the nurse assign to the assistive personnel (AP)?
A. Reinforce low-sodium diet teaching with a newly admitted client
B. Obtain routine vital signs on a group of stable clients and report the results [CORRECT]
C. Perform the initial postoperative assessment on a client returning from surgery
D. Interpret a new cardiac rhythm strip and notify the provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining routine vital signs on stable clients and reporting the results is within the scope of
assistive personnel and falls under delegated measurement and data collection. Teaching, initial assessments,
and interpretation of data are nursing responsibilities that cannot be delegated to an AP. The RN retains
accountability for interpreting the vital signs the AP reports and for deciding what actions are needed.
Q7: A nurse is caring for a client with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis. A newly hired nurse enters the
room wearing a surgical mask. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse take?
A. Allow the entry because a surgical mask is adequate for all airborne organisms
B. Reassign the client's care to an AP instead
C. Instruct the newly hired nurse to enter quickly and limit time in the room
D. Stop the newly hired nurse and instruct that a fit-tested N95 respirator must be worn for airborne
precautions [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Airborne precautions for tuberculosis require a fit-tested N95 respirator or powered
air-purifying respirator because the organisms travel on droplet nuclei that a surgical mask cannot filter. The
charge nurse has a duty to intervene immediately and educate staff to protect both the nurse and future
clients. Quick entry with inadequate protection, reassigning care to an AP without respiratory protection, or
accepting a surgical mask all violate infection control standards.
Q8: A nurse is donning personal protective equipment to enter the room of a client on contact precautions. In
which order should the nurse apply the equipment?
A. Gown, mask or respirator, goggles or face shield, gloves [CORRECT]
B. Gloves, gown, goggles, mask
C. Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
D. Goggles, gown, gloves, mask
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The CDC sequence for donning PPE is gown first, then mask or respirator, then goggles or face
shield, and gloves last so the gloves overlap the gown cuffs and cover all exposed skin. This order minimizes
the risk of contaminating clothing or skin during application. Donning gloves before the gown, or applying
the mask last after already handling potentially contaminated surfaces, creates multiple opportunities for
self-contamination.
Fundamentals Content Mastery Series | Complete Exam with Rationales 3
, ATI Fundamentals CMS Proctored Exam 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Answers
Q9: A nurse is planning fall-prevention interventions for an older adult client admitted following a fall at
home. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
A. Keep four side rails raised at all times so the client cannot climb out
B. Keep the bed in the highest position to discourage getting up without help
C. Orient the client to the room, keep the bed low and locked, ensure the call light is within reach, and
provide nonskid footwear [CORRECT]
D. Administer a nightly sedative so the client sleeps through the night without moving
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Effective fall prevention combines environmental safety and client orientation: a low locked
bed, accessible call light, nonskid footwear, adequate lighting, and clear paths to the bathroom address the
most common causes of hospital falls. Four raised side rails are considered a restraint and can increase
injury risk when clients climb over them. A high bed increases fall distance, and routine sedation increases
confusion and orthostatic risk rather than reducing falls.
Q10: A nurse smells smoke in a client care area and discovers a small fire in a trash can. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Activate the fire alarm pull station
B. Remove any clients who are in immediate danger from the area [CORRECT]
C. Obtain a fire extinguisher and spray the base of the fire
D. Close all doors and windows on the unit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The RACE protocol directs the nurse to Rescue anyone in immediate danger first, then Activate
the alarm, Confine the fire by closing doors, and Extinguish only when safe to do so. Client rescue always
precedes alarm activation because protecting life takes priority over property. Extinguishing the fire or
closing doors before removing endangered clients reverses the correct priority sequence and could delay
evacuation.
Q11: A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client having a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take?
A. Insert a padded tongue blade between the client's teeth
B. Restrain the client's arms to prevent injury
C. Call for help and hold the client down until the seizure stops
D. Turn the client to the lateral side-lying position, protect the head, and time the seizure [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During a seizure the nurse should place the client in a side-lying position to allow secretions to
drain and maintain the airway, protect the head, loosen restrictive clothing, and time the seizure, while never
restraining movements or inserting anything into the mouth. Restraint can cause musculoskeletal injury, and
objects placed in the mouth can damage teeth or obstruct the airway. Holding the client down increases
injury risk and does not shorten the seizure.
Fundamentals Content Mastery Series | Complete Exam with Rationales 4
ATI Fundamentals CMS Proctored Exam
210 Questions and Verified Answers | 2026-2027 Latest | 100% Correct
Blueprint: Aligned with the 2026-2027 ATI CMS Fundamentals blueprint standards, covering all seven
Fundamentals content mastery areas.
Structure: Seven sections in NCLEX blueprint order, Q1 through Q210, with one best answer (A-D) per question, a
marked correct option, and comprehensive rationales for every item.
Cognitive Levels: 30% Recall | 50% Application | 20% Analysis
Question Style: 75% Scenario-Based Clinical Judgment | 25% Direct Recall and Medication Calculation
Priority Frameworks Applied: ABCs, Maslow, Safety and Risk Reduction, Least Restrictive, Acute versus Chronic,
Unstable versus Stable, and Nursing Process (ADPIE).
Section 1: Safe, Effective Care Environment
Questions 1-50
Management of Care | Client Rights and Advocacy | Delegation and Supervision | Legal and Ethical Practice | Infection Control | Client
Safety | Incident Reporting | Prioritization Frameworks
Q1: A nurse is reviewing the steps of the nursing process with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of
the following sequences correctly identifies the five steps of the nursing process in order?
A. Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation [CORRECT]
B. Assessment, Planning, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation
C. Evaluation, Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation
D. Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Evaluation, Implementation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nursing process follows the sequence of Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation,
and Evaluation (ADPIE), which provides the framework for delivering client-centered, evidence-based care.
Assessment always comes first because complete data collection is required before any problem can be
identified. Placing Planning before Diagnosis, or Evaluation before Implementation, reflects a
misunderstanding of how clinical judgments are formed and revised.
Q2: A nurse receives shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
A. A client who had a hip replacement 2 days ago and reports constipation
B. A client awaiting discharge who requests teaching about wound care
C. A client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery and has new restlessness with an
oxygen saturation of 88 percent [CORRECT]
D. A client with diabetes who has a routine fasting blood glucose of 110 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Using the ABC framework and the principle of assessing unstable clients first, the postoperative
client with new restlessness and an oxygen saturation of 88 percent shows evidence of potential hypoxemia
or respiratory compromise and requires immediate assessment. Prioritization rules require the nurse to
address airway, breathing, and circulation before comfort or teaching needs. Constipation, discharge
teaching, and a stable glucose of 110 mg/dL are important but nonurgent and can be addressed after the
unstable client is stabilized.
Fundamentals Content Mastery Series | Complete Exam with Rationales 1
,ATI Fundamentals CMS Proctored Exam 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Answers
Q3: A nurse is assigned to obtain informed consent from a client scheduled for a cholecystectomy. Which of
the following actions describes the nurse's role in the informed consent process?
A. Explaining the surgical technique in detail so the client can consent without the provider
B. Signing the consent form as the person who will perform the procedure
C. Determining whether the client understands, witnessing the signature, and contacting the provider if
the client has remaining questions [CORRECT]
D. Signing the consent form on behalf of the client who is sedated but previously agreed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's role in informed consent is to witness the client's signature, confirm that the client
appears competent and is signing voluntarily, and verify that the provider explained the procedure, risks,
benefits, and alternatives. The provider, not the nurse, is responsible for explaining the surgical procedure
and for performing it. If the client still has questions, the nurse should contact the provider rather than
answer independently, and a sedated client may not legally provide consent.
Q4: A nurse is caring for a confused older adult client who is pulling at the intravenous catheter and
attempting to climb out of bed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Apply a wrist restraint after obtaining a provider prescription
B. Ask a family member to stay with the client around the clock
C. Reorient the client, move the client closer to the nursing station, and try nonrestrictive interventions
[CORRECT]
D. Request a prescription for a benzodiazepine to keep the client calm
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The least restrictive intervention principle requires the nurse to attempt alternatives first, such as
reorientation, repositioning the client near the nursing station, involving family, and removing the triggering
stimulus. Restraints are a last resort and require a provider prescription only after nonrestrictive measures
fail. Requesting a sedative to chemically restrain the client, or relying on an around-the-clock family
member before trying unit interventions, contradicts the least restrictive standard that guides restraint use.
Q5: A nurse is at a community event when a neighbor asks about the condition of a mutual friend who was
admitted to the hospital. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
A. Share general information about the diagnosis because the nurse is off duty
B. Confirm the admission but decline to give details
C. State that the nurse is not permitted to disclose whether any person is a client in the facility
[CORRECT]
D. Suggest the neighbor call the unit directly and ask the charge nurse
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: HIPAA prohibits the nurse from revealing even the fact that a person is a client without
authorization, so the correct response is to decline to confirm or deny the admission. Sharing general
diagnosis information still breaches confidentiality, and off-duty status does not remove the obligation to
protect protected health information. Directing the neighbor to call the unit is also inappropriate because
staff cannot release information to callers who are not authorized representatives.
Fundamentals Content Mastery Series | Complete Exam with Rationales 2
,ATI Fundamentals CMS Proctored Exam 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Answers
Q6: A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is assigning tasks for the shift. Which of the following tasks should
the nurse assign to the assistive personnel (AP)?
A. Reinforce low-sodium diet teaching with a newly admitted client
B. Obtain routine vital signs on a group of stable clients and report the results [CORRECT]
C. Perform the initial postoperative assessment on a client returning from surgery
D. Interpret a new cardiac rhythm strip and notify the provider
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining routine vital signs on stable clients and reporting the results is within the scope of
assistive personnel and falls under delegated measurement and data collection. Teaching, initial assessments,
and interpretation of data are nursing responsibilities that cannot be delegated to an AP. The RN retains
accountability for interpreting the vital signs the AP reports and for deciding what actions are needed.
Q7: A nurse is caring for a client with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis. A newly hired nurse enters the
room wearing a surgical mask. Which of the following actions should the charge nurse take?
A. Allow the entry because a surgical mask is adequate for all airborne organisms
B. Reassign the client's care to an AP instead
C. Instruct the newly hired nurse to enter quickly and limit time in the room
D. Stop the newly hired nurse and instruct that a fit-tested N95 respirator must be worn for airborne
precautions [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Airborne precautions for tuberculosis require a fit-tested N95 respirator or powered
air-purifying respirator because the organisms travel on droplet nuclei that a surgical mask cannot filter. The
charge nurse has a duty to intervene immediately and educate staff to protect both the nurse and future
clients. Quick entry with inadequate protection, reassigning care to an AP without respiratory protection, or
accepting a surgical mask all violate infection control standards.
Q8: A nurse is donning personal protective equipment to enter the room of a client on contact precautions. In
which order should the nurse apply the equipment?
A. Gown, mask or respirator, goggles or face shield, gloves [CORRECT]
B. Gloves, gown, goggles, mask
C. Mask, gloves, gown, goggles
D. Goggles, gown, gloves, mask
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The CDC sequence for donning PPE is gown first, then mask or respirator, then goggles or face
shield, and gloves last so the gloves overlap the gown cuffs and cover all exposed skin. This order minimizes
the risk of contaminating clothing or skin during application. Donning gloves before the gown, or applying
the mask last after already handling potentially contaminated surfaces, creates multiple opportunities for
self-contamination.
Fundamentals Content Mastery Series | Complete Exam with Rationales 3
, ATI Fundamentals CMS Proctored Exam 2026-2027 Edition | Verified Answers
Q9: A nurse is planning fall-prevention interventions for an older adult client admitted following a fall at
home. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
A. Keep four side rails raised at all times so the client cannot climb out
B. Keep the bed in the highest position to discourage getting up without help
C. Orient the client to the room, keep the bed low and locked, ensure the call light is within reach, and
provide nonskid footwear [CORRECT]
D. Administer a nightly sedative so the client sleeps through the night without moving
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Effective fall prevention combines environmental safety and client orientation: a low locked
bed, accessible call light, nonskid footwear, adequate lighting, and clear paths to the bathroom address the
most common causes of hospital falls. Four raised side rails are considered a restraint and can increase
injury risk when clients climb over them. A high bed increases fall distance, and routine sedation increases
confusion and orthostatic risk rather than reducing falls.
Q10: A nurse smells smoke in a client care area and discovers a small fire in a trash can. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Activate the fire alarm pull station
B. Remove any clients who are in immediate danger from the area [CORRECT]
C. Obtain a fire extinguisher and spray the base of the fire
D. Close all doors and windows on the unit
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The RACE protocol directs the nurse to Rescue anyone in immediate danger first, then Activate
the alarm, Confine the fire by closing doors, and Extinguish only when safe to do so. Client rescue always
precedes alarm activation because protecting life takes priority over property. Extinguishing the fire or
closing doors before removing endangered clients reverses the correct priority sequence and could delay
evacuation.
Q11: A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client having a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take?
A. Insert a padded tongue blade between the client's teeth
B. Restrain the client's arms to prevent injury
C. Call for help and hold the client down until the seizure stops
D. Turn the client to the lateral side-lying position, protect the head, and time the seizure [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During a seizure the nurse should place the client in a side-lying position to allow secretions to
drain and maintain the airway, protect the head, loosen restrictive clothing, and time the seizure, while never
restraining movements or inserting anything into the mouth. Restraint can cause musculoskeletal injury, and
objects placed in the mouth can damage teeth or obstruct the airway. Holding the client down increases
injury risk and does not shorten the seizure.
Fundamentals Content Mastery Series | Complete Exam with Rationales 4
