PEAT 4 Exam 2025 (Actual Exam)| All Questions and Correct Answers
with Detailed Explanations | Graded A+ | Verified Answers | Just
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1. In splinting or immobilization, the functional position of the hand includes wrist:
A. extension, phalangeal flexion, and thumb abduction
B. extension, phalangeal extension and thumb abduction
C. extension, phalangeal flexion and thumb adduction
D. flexion, phalangeal flexion and thumb adduction - (CORRECT ANSWER)A.
The functional position of the wrist and hand describes the position from which the optimal function is
most likely to occur. This position is described as
a) slight wrist extension,
b) slight ulnar deviation,
c) fingers flexed at the MCP, PIP & DIP joints and
d) thumb slightly abducted.
1. During pregnancy, which of the following is contraindicated?
A. curl-ups
B. bridging
C. double leg lifts
D. deep breathing with forced expiration - (CORRECT ANSWER)C.
During pregnancy and postpartum period, the stretched abdominal muscles are unable to stabilize the
lower back, as the legs are raised. Attempting to perform double leg lifts can overwork the abdominal
muscle and cause damage to the spinal joints.
, 2
1. A target heart rate is determined for individual entering a training program in order to:
A. regulate exercise intensity
B. estimate energy expenditure
C. control blood pressure and specific heart rate
D. ensure participants exercise at maximal capacity - (CORRECT ANSWER)A.
Exercise intensity can be expressed as O2 uptake during activity. HR and O2 uptake have a relatively
lower linear relationship. Therefore, utilizing a target HR will ensure that the appropriate exercise
intensity is being achieved. Estimation of energy expenditure requires measurement of O2 consumption
that is then calculated into calories metabolized during the activity. BP cannot be controlled at specific
HR. Exercising at maximal capacity does not achieve aerobic training benefits and is unsafe for the
majority of patient population.
1. A herniated nucleus pulposus at the L3-L4 disc produces which of the following clinical findings?
A. Numbness in the back of the calf and dorsiflexor weakness
B. Numbness in the anteromedial thigh and knee and quadriceps weakness
C. Numbness and weakness in the thigh, legs, feet and/or perineum
D. Numbness in the back of the calf and atrophy of gastrocnemius and soleus - (CORRECT ANSWER)B.
Pressure on the L3 L4 root causes numbness in the anteromedial thigh and knee and quads weakness.
Numbness in the back of the calf and dorsiflexor weakness is indicative of L4, L5 and S1 nerve root
involvement. Numbness and weakness in the thighs, legs and feet and perineum is indicative of L2
through S1 nerve root involvement. Numbness in the back of the calf and atrophy of gastrocsoleus is
indicative of the S1 nerve root involvement.
, 3
1. The intervention for a patient with limitation of shoulder flexion and medial rotation includes
mobilization. Which glide is the most appropriate for mobilizing this shoulder to specifically increase the
restricted motion?
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Medial
D. Lateral - (CORRECT ANSWER)A.
The most appropriate mobilization technique for increasing both shoulder flexion and medial rotation
would be posterior (dorsal) glide. Lateral glide may be used as a general joint distraction technique.
Medial glide would not be appropriate to increase flexion and medial rotation. Anterior glide is used to
increase extension and lateral rotation.
1. Which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate for a patient with low postural tone?
A. Slow regular rocking while sitting on the treatment bolster
B. Continuous pressure to the skin overlying the back muscle
C. Low frequency vibration to the back muscle
D. Joint approximation applied through the shoulder to the trunk - (CORRECT ANSWER)D.
Options A, B & C are techniques used to decrease postural tone, which is not indicated for this patient.
Option D is the most appropriate technique for improving low postural tone.
1. Which skin change associated with aging has the GREATEST effect on wound healing?
A. Reduction in sensation
, 4
B. Decrease elasticity of the skin
C. Decrease epidermal proliferation
D. Change in pigmentation - (CORRECT ANSWER)C.
Wounds heal via a complex process involving re-epithelialization. With advanced aging, the rate of
epidermal proliferation decreases.
1. Which of the following techniques is MOST effective in teaching an IDDM patient about foot care?
A. Reassure the patient that no infection will occur if the directions are followed, then demonstrate
procedure
B. Tell patient how foot care is performed, then watch patient's performance
C. Watch patient perform foot inspection and caution him that amputation results from unattended skin
problems
D. Have the patient demonstrate a foot inspection, then give feedback on patient's performance -
(CORRECT ANSWER)D.
Learning the process of foot care is a psychomotor skill and effective strategies to teach psychomotor
skills include repeat demonstration by the patient of the skill followed by feedback from the therapist to
highlight what was performed correctly and what areas need improvement. Reassurance about
prevention of infection with proper foot care would primarily be a cognitive skill and does not ensure
that the patient can effectively perform proper foot care. Options B & C do not include feedback that
informs the patient about their performance.
1. For a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, the MOST appropriate rehabilitation goal would be:
A. prevention of contractures and determine method of mobility
B. preservation of strength and muscle tone
with Detailed Explanations | Graded A+ | Verified Answers | Just
Released | Latest Version
1. In splinting or immobilization, the functional position of the hand includes wrist:
A. extension, phalangeal flexion, and thumb abduction
B. extension, phalangeal extension and thumb abduction
C. extension, phalangeal flexion and thumb adduction
D. flexion, phalangeal flexion and thumb adduction - (CORRECT ANSWER)A.
The functional position of the wrist and hand describes the position from which the optimal function is
most likely to occur. This position is described as
a) slight wrist extension,
b) slight ulnar deviation,
c) fingers flexed at the MCP, PIP & DIP joints and
d) thumb slightly abducted.
1. During pregnancy, which of the following is contraindicated?
A. curl-ups
B. bridging
C. double leg lifts
D. deep breathing with forced expiration - (CORRECT ANSWER)C.
During pregnancy and postpartum period, the stretched abdominal muscles are unable to stabilize the
lower back, as the legs are raised. Attempting to perform double leg lifts can overwork the abdominal
muscle and cause damage to the spinal joints.
, 2
1. A target heart rate is determined for individual entering a training program in order to:
A. regulate exercise intensity
B. estimate energy expenditure
C. control blood pressure and specific heart rate
D. ensure participants exercise at maximal capacity - (CORRECT ANSWER)A.
Exercise intensity can be expressed as O2 uptake during activity. HR and O2 uptake have a relatively
lower linear relationship. Therefore, utilizing a target HR will ensure that the appropriate exercise
intensity is being achieved. Estimation of energy expenditure requires measurement of O2 consumption
that is then calculated into calories metabolized during the activity. BP cannot be controlled at specific
HR. Exercising at maximal capacity does not achieve aerobic training benefits and is unsafe for the
majority of patient population.
1. A herniated nucleus pulposus at the L3-L4 disc produces which of the following clinical findings?
A. Numbness in the back of the calf and dorsiflexor weakness
B. Numbness in the anteromedial thigh and knee and quadriceps weakness
C. Numbness and weakness in the thigh, legs, feet and/or perineum
D. Numbness in the back of the calf and atrophy of gastrocnemius and soleus - (CORRECT ANSWER)B.
Pressure on the L3 L4 root causes numbness in the anteromedial thigh and knee and quads weakness.
Numbness in the back of the calf and dorsiflexor weakness is indicative of L4, L5 and S1 nerve root
involvement. Numbness and weakness in the thighs, legs and feet and perineum is indicative of L2
through S1 nerve root involvement. Numbness in the back of the calf and atrophy of gastrocsoleus is
indicative of the S1 nerve root involvement.
, 3
1. The intervention for a patient with limitation of shoulder flexion and medial rotation includes
mobilization. Which glide is the most appropriate for mobilizing this shoulder to specifically increase the
restricted motion?
A. Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Medial
D. Lateral - (CORRECT ANSWER)A.
The most appropriate mobilization technique for increasing both shoulder flexion and medial rotation
would be posterior (dorsal) glide. Lateral glide may be used as a general joint distraction technique.
Medial glide would not be appropriate to increase flexion and medial rotation. Anterior glide is used to
increase extension and lateral rotation.
1. Which of the following techniques is MOST appropriate for a patient with low postural tone?
A. Slow regular rocking while sitting on the treatment bolster
B. Continuous pressure to the skin overlying the back muscle
C. Low frequency vibration to the back muscle
D. Joint approximation applied through the shoulder to the trunk - (CORRECT ANSWER)D.
Options A, B & C are techniques used to decrease postural tone, which is not indicated for this patient.
Option D is the most appropriate technique for improving low postural tone.
1. Which skin change associated with aging has the GREATEST effect on wound healing?
A. Reduction in sensation
, 4
B. Decrease elasticity of the skin
C. Decrease epidermal proliferation
D. Change in pigmentation - (CORRECT ANSWER)C.
Wounds heal via a complex process involving re-epithelialization. With advanced aging, the rate of
epidermal proliferation decreases.
1. Which of the following techniques is MOST effective in teaching an IDDM patient about foot care?
A. Reassure the patient that no infection will occur if the directions are followed, then demonstrate
procedure
B. Tell patient how foot care is performed, then watch patient's performance
C. Watch patient perform foot inspection and caution him that amputation results from unattended skin
problems
D. Have the patient demonstrate a foot inspection, then give feedback on patient's performance -
(CORRECT ANSWER)D.
Learning the process of foot care is a psychomotor skill and effective strategies to teach psychomotor
skills include repeat demonstration by the patient of the skill followed by feedback from the therapist to
highlight what was performed correctly and what areas need improvement. Reassurance about
prevention of infection with proper foot care would primarily be a cognitive skill and does not ensure
that the patient can effectively perform proper foot care. Options B & C do not include feedback that
informs the patient about their performance.
1. For a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, the MOST appropriate rehabilitation goal would be:
A. prevention of contractures and determine method of mobility
B. preservation of strength and muscle tone
