ATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR REVIEW COMPLETE EXAM
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS | 2026–2027 LATEST
UPDATE | GUARANTEED PASS | DETAILED RATIONALES |
FULL STUDY GUIDE | EXAM PREP | PRACTICE TEST |
CERTIFICATION PREPARATION
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client who has anemia. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a baseline set of vital signs.
B. Verify the client's identity using two unique identifiers.
C. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
D. Check the expiration date on the unit of blood.
Correct Answer: B. Verify the client's identity using two unique identifiers.
Rationale: The priority action is to ensure client safety by correctly identifying the recipient. While
obtaining vital signs, priming tubing, and checking the expiration date are all important steps in the
transfusion process, the five rights of medication administration (including the right patient) are
paramount to prevent a fatal hemolytic reaction. Verification of identity with two identifiers is the
foundational first step.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and reports pain of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. The
client's provider has prescribed morphine 4 mg IV bolus. Which of the following actions is the
nurse's priority?
A. Administer the morphine as prescribed.
B. Assess the client's respiratory rate.
C. Ask the client to rate their pain again in 15 minutes.
D. Check the client's medical history for allergies.
Correct Answer: B. Assess the client's respiratory rate.
Rationale: Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression. The nursing
priority is to assess the client's respiratory rate before administration to ensure it is within a safe
range (typically above 12 breaths/min for an adult). Administering morphine to a client with a low
respiratory rate could lead to fatal respiratory arrest. While assessing allergies and re-assessing pain
are important, they are not the immediate priority over respiratory safety.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
,A. "I will check my blood glucose level once a day in the morning."
B. "I can stop taking my metformin when my blood sugar is normal."
C. "I should avoid eating foods that are high in sugar, like fruit juice."
D. "I will increase my carbohydrate intake to maintain my energy levels."
Correct Answer: C. "I should avoid eating foods that are high in sugar, like fruit juice."
Rationale: Clients with type 2 diabetes need to manage their carbohydrate intake, with a focus on
limiting simple sugars and high-glycemic index foods, such as fruit juice, which can cause rapid spikes
in blood glucose. Blood glucose monitoring frequency should be individualized, but often includes
testing before meals and at bedtime. Metformin is a long-term medication that should not be
stopped without a provider's guidance, even if blood sugar normalizes. Carbohydrate intake should
be consistent and managed, not simply increased.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings is a late
manifestation of the condition?
A. Dyspnea on exertion
B. Orthopnea
C. Peripheral edema
D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: C. Peripheral edema.
Rationale: Peripheral edema is often a late manifestation of heart failure, resulting from fluid volume
overload and venous congestion. Dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea are early signs, indicative of
pulmonary congestion as the heart struggles to meet the body's demand. Fatigue is also an early,
general symptom due to decreased cardiac output.
5. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. The nurse should
place the client in which of the following positions to reduce the risk of aspiration?
A. Supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. High-Fowler's
D. Left lateral
Correct Answer: C. High-Fowler's.
Rationale: High-Fowler's position (head of bed elevated 45-90 degrees) uses gravity to help prevent
reflux and aspiration of enteral feeding into the lungs. The supine and Trendelenburg positions would
increase the risk of aspiration. The left lateral position is not typically used for feeding administration.
6. A nurse is assessing a client's surgical wound on the second postoperative day. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
B. Edema around the incision site
,C. Bright red drainage on the dressing
D. Slight erythema of the surrounding skin
Correct Answer: C. Bright red drainage on the dressing.
Rationale: Bright red (sanguineous) drainage on the second postoperative day may indicate active
bleeding or a potential hemorrhage, which requires immediate attention and reporting to the
provider. Serosanguineous drainage, slight erythema, and edema are all expected findings in the first
few days after surgery due to the normal inflammatory healing process.
7. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride (KCl) 20 mEq IV to a client. Which of the
following actions is most appropriate?
A. Administer the medication as a rapid IV bolus.
B. Mix the KCL in a 500 mL IV bag of 0.9% sodium chloride.
C. Assess the client's urine output before administration.
D. Infuse the medication through a peripheral IV site at 15 mEq/hr.
Correct Answer: C. Assess the client's urine output before administration.
Rationale: Potassium chloride should never be administered as an IV bolus or rapidly, as this can
cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias. The maximum infusion rate for peripheral IVs is typically 10 mEq/hr,
and the concentration should be diluted (usually no more than 40 mEq/L in a peripheral line). The
most critical safety step before administering IV potassium is to ensure the client has adequate renal
function and urine output. If the client is oliguric or anuric, administering potassium can lead to life-
threatening hyperkalemia because the kidneys are the primary route of excretion.
8. A client with a new prescription for warfarin is being discharged. Which of the following
statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I need to have my blood tested regularly for my INR."
B. "I will avoid eating large amounts of dark, leafy green vegetables."
C. "I will use an electric razor when shaving to prevent cuts."
D. "I can take ibuprofen for my headaches if I need to."
Correct Answer: D. "I can take ibuprofen for my headaches if I need to."
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and NSAIDs like ibuprofen further increase the risk of
bleeding due to their antiplatelet effects. Clients should be taught to avoid NSAIDs and to use
acetaminophen (Tylenol) instead for pain relief, while monitoring for signs of bleeding. Regular INR
monitoring, consistent vitamin K intake (found in green leafy vegetables), and using an electric razor
are all correct statements that indicate proper understanding of warfarin therapy.
9. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. Which of the following findings should the
nurse report to the provider?
A. Apical heart rate of 140/min
B. Respiratory rate of 48/min
, C. Axillary temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
D. Grunting respirations
Correct Answer: D. Grunting respirations.
Rationale: Grunting respirations in a newborn are a sign of respiratory distress and should be
reported immediately. Grunting is a physiologic mechanism to maintain functional residual capacity
in the lungs and indicates that the infant is working hard to breathe. The other values are within
normal limits for a newborn: HR 120-160, RR 30-60, and Temp 36.5-37.5°C.
10. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at risk for falls. Which of the following interventions
should the nurse include in the plan?
A. Keep the bed in the lowest position with the side rails up.
B. Place the call light within the client's reach.
C. Restrain the client at night to prevent them from getting out of bed.
D. Dim the lighting in the room to promote sleep.
Correct Answer: B. Place the call light within the client's reach.
Rationale: Placing the call light within the client's reach is a fundamental and effective fall prevention
strategy, empowering the client to call for assistance when needed. Side rails up are considered a
restraint in many settings and are not universally recommended. Physical restraints should only be
used as a last resort. Dim lighting may increase the risk of falls by decreasing visibility.
11. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube attached to a closed-chest drainage system.
Which of the following actions is correct when caring for the client?
A. Ensure the chest tube is clamped when the client is ambulating.
B. Strip the chest tube to promote drainage.
C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest.
D. Milk the chest tube to clear any clots.
Correct Answer: C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest.
Rationale: The closed-chest drainage system must be kept below the level of the client's chest to
ensure proper drainage and prevent backflow of fluid into the pleural space. Clamping, stripping, and
milking chest tubes are generally avoided as they can create high negative pressure and damage lung
tissue or disrupt the system's integrity and should only be done with a specific provider order.
12. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following
findings should the nurse anticipate?
A. Bradycardia and hypotension
B. Sedation and hypothermia
C. Tremors and diaphoresis
D. Flaccid muscles and polyuria
Correct Answer: C. Tremors and diaphoresis.
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS | 2026–2027 LATEST
UPDATE | GUARANTEED PASS | DETAILED RATIONALES |
FULL STUDY GUIDE | EXAM PREP | PRACTICE TEST |
CERTIFICATION PREPARATION
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client who has anemia. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a baseline set of vital signs.
B. Verify the client's identity using two unique identifiers.
C. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
D. Check the expiration date on the unit of blood.
Correct Answer: B. Verify the client's identity using two unique identifiers.
Rationale: The priority action is to ensure client safety by correctly identifying the recipient. While
obtaining vital signs, priming tubing, and checking the expiration date are all important steps in the
transfusion process, the five rights of medication administration (including the right patient) are
paramount to prevent a fatal hemolytic reaction. Verification of identity with two identifiers is the
foundational first step.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and reports pain of 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. The
client's provider has prescribed morphine 4 mg IV bolus. Which of the following actions is the
nurse's priority?
A. Administer the morphine as prescribed.
B. Assess the client's respiratory rate.
C. Ask the client to rate their pain again in 15 minutes.
D. Check the client's medical history for allergies.
Correct Answer: B. Assess the client's respiratory rate.
Rationale: Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic that can cause respiratory depression. The nursing
priority is to assess the client's respiratory rate before administration to ensure it is within a safe
range (typically above 12 breaths/min for an adult). Administering morphine to a client with a low
respiratory rate could lead to fatal respiratory arrest. While assessing allergies and re-assessing pain
are important, they are not the immediate priority over respiratory safety.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
,A. "I will check my blood glucose level once a day in the morning."
B. "I can stop taking my metformin when my blood sugar is normal."
C. "I should avoid eating foods that are high in sugar, like fruit juice."
D. "I will increase my carbohydrate intake to maintain my energy levels."
Correct Answer: C. "I should avoid eating foods that are high in sugar, like fruit juice."
Rationale: Clients with type 2 diabetes need to manage their carbohydrate intake, with a focus on
limiting simple sugars and high-glycemic index foods, such as fruit juice, which can cause rapid spikes
in blood glucose. Blood glucose monitoring frequency should be individualized, but often includes
testing before meals and at bedtime. Metformin is a long-term medication that should not be
stopped without a provider's guidance, even if blood sugar normalizes. Carbohydrate intake should
be consistent and managed, not simply increased.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure. Which of the following findings is a late
manifestation of the condition?
A. Dyspnea on exertion
B. Orthopnea
C. Peripheral edema
D. Fatigue
Correct Answer: C. Peripheral edema.
Rationale: Peripheral edema is often a late manifestation of heart failure, resulting from fluid volume
overload and venous congestion. Dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea are early signs, indicative of
pulmonary congestion as the heart struggles to meet the body's demand. Fatigue is also an early,
general symptom due to decreased cardiac output.
5. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. The nurse should
place the client in which of the following positions to reduce the risk of aspiration?
A. Supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. High-Fowler's
D. Left lateral
Correct Answer: C. High-Fowler's.
Rationale: High-Fowler's position (head of bed elevated 45-90 degrees) uses gravity to help prevent
reflux and aspiration of enteral feeding into the lungs. The supine and Trendelenburg positions would
increase the risk of aspiration. The left lateral position is not typically used for feeding administration.
6. A nurse is assessing a client's surgical wound on the second postoperative day. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing
B. Edema around the incision site
,C. Bright red drainage on the dressing
D. Slight erythema of the surrounding skin
Correct Answer: C. Bright red drainage on the dressing.
Rationale: Bright red (sanguineous) drainage on the second postoperative day may indicate active
bleeding or a potential hemorrhage, which requires immediate attention and reporting to the
provider. Serosanguineous drainage, slight erythema, and edema are all expected findings in the first
few days after surgery due to the normal inflammatory healing process.
7. A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride (KCl) 20 mEq IV to a client. Which of the
following actions is most appropriate?
A. Administer the medication as a rapid IV bolus.
B. Mix the KCL in a 500 mL IV bag of 0.9% sodium chloride.
C. Assess the client's urine output before administration.
D. Infuse the medication through a peripheral IV site at 15 mEq/hr.
Correct Answer: C. Assess the client's urine output before administration.
Rationale: Potassium chloride should never be administered as an IV bolus or rapidly, as this can
cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias. The maximum infusion rate for peripheral IVs is typically 10 mEq/hr,
and the concentration should be diluted (usually no more than 40 mEq/L in a peripheral line). The
most critical safety step before administering IV potassium is to ensure the client has adequate renal
function and urine output. If the client is oliguric or anuric, administering potassium can lead to life-
threatening hyperkalemia because the kidneys are the primary route of excretion.
8. A client with a new prescription for warfarin is being discharged. Which of the following
statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I need to have my blood tested regularly for my INR."
B. "I will avoid eating large amounts of dark, leafy green vegetables."
C. "I will use an electric razor when shaving to prevent cuts."
D. "I can take ibuprofen for my headaches if I need to."
Correct Answer: D. "I can take ibuprofen for my headaches if I need to."
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and NSAIDs like ibuprofen further increase the risk of
bleeding due to their antiplatelet effects. Clients should be taught to avoid NSAIDs and to use
acetaminophen (Tylenol) instead for pain relief, while monitoring for signs of bleeding. Regular INR
monitoring, consistent vitamin K intake (found in green leafy vegetables), and using an electric razor
are all correct statements that indicate proper understanding of warfarin therapy.
9. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 12 hours old. Which of the following findings should the
nurse report to the provider?
A. Apical heart rate of 140/min
B. Respiratory rate of 48/min
, C. Axillary temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
D. Grunting respirations
Correct Answer: D. Grunting respirations.
Rationale: Grunting respirations in a newborn are a sign of respiratory distress and should be
reported immediately. Grunting is a physiologic mechanism to maintain functional residual capacity
in the lungs and indicates that the infant is working hard to breathe. The other values are within
normal limits for a newborn: HR 120-160, RR 30-60, and Temp 36.5-37.5°C.
10. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at risk for falls. Which of the following interventions
should the nurse include in the plan?
A. Keep the bed in the lowest position with the side rails up.
B. Place the call light within the client's reach.
C. Restrain the client at night to prevent them from getting out of bed.
D. Dim the lighting in the room to promote sleep.
Correct Answer: B. Place the call light within the client's reach.
Rationale: Placing the call light within the client's reach is a fundamental and effective fall prevention
strategy, empowering the client to call for assistance when needed. Side rails up are considered a
restraint in many settings and are not universally recommended. Physical restraints should only be
used as a last resort. Dim lighting may increase the risk of falls by decreasing visibility.
11. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube attached to a closed-chest drainage system.
Which of the following actions is correct when caring for the client?
A. Ensure the chest tube is clamped when the client is ambulating.
B. Strip the chest tube to promote drainage.
C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest.
D. Milk the chest tube to clear any clots.
Correct Answer: C. Keep the drainage system below the level of the client's chest.
Rationale: The closed-chest drainage system must be kept below the level of the client's chest to
ensure proper drainage and prevent backflow of fluid into the pleural space. Clamping, stripping, and
milking chest tubes are generally avoided as they can create high negative pressure and damage lung
tissue or disrupt the system's integrity and should only be done with a specific provider order.
12. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which of the following
findings should the nurse anticipate?
A. Bradycardia and hypotension
B. Sedation and hypothermia
C. Tremors and diaphoresis
D. Flaccid muscles and polyuria
Correct Answer: C. Tremors and diaphoresis.
