NSG 4800 COMPS FINAL EXAM WITH ACTUAL
CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
DETAILED ANSWERS| CURRENTLY TESTING
VERSION | ALREADY GRADED A+|EXPERT
VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS 2026-2027
Question 1
The nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with a UTI reporting urinary frequency
B. A client with pneumonia and a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
C. A client with type 1 diabetes who is difficult to arouse and has a blood glucose of 38
mg/dL
D. A client with appendicitis reporting abdominal pain of 4/10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A glucose of 38 mg/dL represents severe hypoglycemia, and difficulty
arousing the client indicates neurologic compromise. Hypoglycemia can rapidly
progress to seizures, coma, and death, so this client requires immediate
intervention. The other clients require assessment and treatment but are not
demonstrating the same immediate threat to life.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client with Clostridioides difficile infection. Which intervention is
most appropriate?
A. Use an N95 respirator when entering the room
B. Wear a gown and gloves when providing care
C. Place the client in a positive-pressure room
D. Use only alcohol-based hand sanitizer after client contact
Correct answer: B
Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions, including gown and gloves.
Hand hygiene with soap and water is preferred because alcohol-based hand
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,sanitizers do not reliably eliminate C. difficile spores. Airborne precautions and an
N95 respirator are not routinely required.
Question 3
Which task is appropriate for the RN to delegate to an experienced UAP?
A. Assessing a newly admitted client's skin
B. Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer
C. Obtaining vital signs for a stable postoperative client
D. Evaluating a client's response to pain medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining routine vital signs on a stable client is within typical UAP
responsibilities. Assessment, teaching, and evaluation require nursing judgment
and remain the RN's responsibility. Delegation requires the RN to ensure the task is
appropriate for the client's condition and the UAP's competency
Question 4
The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client. Which assessment
finding requires the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Heart rate of 52/min
B. Respiratory rate of 18/min
C. Blood pressure of 128/74 mmHg
D. Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. An adult apical pulse below 60/min is
generally a reason to hold digoxin and notify the provider, according to common
nursing parameters. Hypokalemia also increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, but
this client's potassium is normal.
Question 5
A client's blood pressure changes from 132/78 mmHg while lying down to 108/64 mmHg
after standing. Which nursing action is the priority?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate independently
B. Assist the client back to a safe position
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,C. Administer the prescribed antihypertensive medication
D. Restrict oral fluids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The systolic pressure has decreased by 24 mmHg, meeting the
commonly used threshold for orthostatic hypotension. The immediate priority is
preventing a fall by assisting the client to sit or lie down. The nurse should then
assess contributing factors and notify the provider as appropriate.
Question 6
A nurse discovers smoke coming from a client's room. What should the nurse do first?
A. Pull the fire alarm
B. Close the client's door
C. Rescue clients in immediate danger
D. Attempt to extinguish the fire
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The first step of RACE is Rescue anyone in immediate danger. The
sequence is Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate. The nurse should not
delay rescuing an endangered client in order to activate the alarm or obtain an
extinguisher.
Question 7
A client suddenly develops facial drooping, right-sided weakness, and difficulty
speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Give the client oral aspirin
B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
C. Determine the time the symptoms began
D. Encourage the client to rest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The exact time of symptom onset or last-known-well time is critical in
evaluating eligibility for acute stroke therapies. The nurse should activate the
facility's stroke response while maintaining airway, breathing, circulation, and
neurologic assessment. Oral medications should not be given until swallowing
safety is established.
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, Question 8
A client reports crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm and jaw. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
B. Encourage the client to ambulate
C. Give the client a full meal
D. Place the client in a prone position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A 12-lead ECG should be obtained promptly when acute coronary
syndrome is suspected because it can identify myocardial ischemia or infarction
and guide urgent treatment. The client should remain at rest while the nurse
simultaneously assesses vital signs, oxygenation, symptoms, and prescribed
emergency medications.
Question 9
Which finding in a client with heart failure requires the most immediate intervention?
A. 1+ bilateral ankle edema
B. Weight gain of 1 lb over one week
C. New-onset pink, frothy sputum
D. Fatigue after walking 100 feet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pink, frothy sputum is associated with acute pulmonary edema, a
potentially life-threatening complication of left-sided heart failure. The nurse
should immediately assess airway and breathing, position the client appropriately,
provide oxygen as indicated, and activate emergency treatment.
Question 10
A client with asthma develops severe dyspnea. Which finding is most concerning?
A. Expiratory wheezing
B. Respiratory rate of 24/min
C. Inability to speak in complete sentences
D. Productive cough
Correct answer: C
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CORRECT QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
DETAILED ANSWERS| CURRENTLY TESTING
VERSION | ALREADY GRADED A+|EXPERT
VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS 2026-2027
Question 1
The nurse receives report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with a UTI reporting urinary frequency
B. A client with pneumonia and a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
C. A client with type 1 diabetes who is difficult to arouse and has a blood glucose of 38
mg/dL
D. A client with appendicitis reporting abdominal pain of 4/10
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A glucose of 38 mg/dL represents severe hypoglycemia, and difficulty
arousing the client indicates neurologic compromise. Hypoglycemia can rapidly
progress to seizures, coma, and death, so this client requires immediate
intervention. The other clients require assessment and treatment but are not
demonstrating the same immediate threat to life.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a client with Clostridioides difficile infection. Which intervention is
most appropriate?
A. Use an N95 respirator when entering the room
B. Wear a gown and gloves when providing care
C. Place the client in a positive-pressure room
D. Use only alcohol-based hand sanitizer after client contact
Correct answer: B
Rationale: C. difficile requires contact precautions, including gown and gloves.
Hand hygiene with soap and water is preferred because alcohol-based hand
1|Page
,sanitizers do not reliably eliminate C. difficile spores. Airborne precautions and an
N95 respirator are not routinely required.
Question 3
Which task is appropriate for the RN to delegate to an experienced UAP?
A. Assessing a newly admitted client's skin
B. Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer
C. Obtaining vital signs for a stable postoperative client
D. Evaluating a client's response to pain medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining routine vital signs on a stable client is within typical UAP
responsibilities. Assessment, teaching, and evaluation require nursing judgment
and remain the RN's responsibility. Delegation requires the RN to ensure the task is
appropriate for the client's condition and the UAP's competency
Question 4
The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client. Which assessment
finding requires the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A. Heart rate of 52/min
B. Respiratory rate of 18/min
C. Blood pressure of 128/74 mmHg
D. Potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia. An adult apical pulse below 60/min is
generally a reason to hold digoxin and notify the provider, according to common
nursing parameters. Hypokalemia also increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, but
this client's potassium is normal.
Question 5
A client's blood pressure changes from 132/78 mmHg while lying down to 108/64 mmHg
after standing. Which nursing action is the priority?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate independently
B. Assist the client back to a safe position
2|Page
,C. Administer the prescribed antihypertensive medication
D. Restrict oral fluids
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The systolic pressure has decreased by 24 mmHg, meeting the
commonly used threshold for orthostatic hypotension. The immediate priority is
preventing a fall by assisting the client to sit or lie down. The nurse should then
assess contributing factors and notify the provider as appropriate.
Question 6
A nurse discovers smoke coming from a client's room. What should the nurse do first?
A. Pull the fire alarm
B. Close the client's door
C. Rescue clients in immediate danger
D. Attempt to extinguish the fire
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The first step of RACE is Rescue anyone in immediate danger. The
sequence is Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate. The nurse should not
delay rescuing an endangered client in order to activate the alarm or obtain an
extinguisher.
Question 7
A client suddenly develops facial drooping, right-sided weakness, and difficulty
speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Give the client oral aspirin
B. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
C. Determine the time the symptoms began
D. Encourage the client to rest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The exact time of symptom onset or last-known-well time is critical in
evaluating eligibility for acute stroke therapies. The nurse should activate the
facility's stroke response while maintaining airway, breathing, circulation, and
neurologic assessment. Oral medications should not be given until swallowing
safety is established.
3|Page
, Question 8
A client reports crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm and jaw. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
B. Encourage the client to ambulate
C. Give the client a full meal
D. Place the client in a prone position
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A 12-lead ECG should be obtained promptly when acute coronary
syndrome is suspected because it can identify myocardial ischemia or infarction
and guide urgent treatment. The client should remain at rest while the nurse
simultaneously assesses vital signs, oxygenation, symptoms, and prescribed
emergency medications.
Question 9
Which finding in a client with heart failure requires the most immediate intervention?
A. 1+ bilateral ankle edema
B. Weight gain of 1 lb over one week
C. New-onset pink, frothy sputum
D. Fatigue after walking 100 feet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pink, frothy sputum is associated with acute pulmonary edema, a
potentially life-threatening complication of left-sided heart failure. The nurse
should immediately assess airway and breathing, position the client appropriately,
provide oxygen as indicated, and activate emergency treatment.
Question 10
A client with asthma develops severe dyspnea. Which finding is most concerning?
A. Expiratory wheezing
B. Respiratory rate of 24/min
C. Inability to speak in complete sentences
D. Productive cough
Correct answer: C
4|Page
